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Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.
In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?
Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)
When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?
Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.
1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.
2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.
3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.
4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.
IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.
1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.
2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.
3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.
4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.
All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on eO/O on swi02
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.
1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.
2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.
3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.
All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.
When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured'? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configure on R2 to Be elected as the DR in the network?
An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken?
What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?
How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address?
Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.
1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.
2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.
3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.
4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.
5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.
R1 as an NTP server must have:
• NTP authentication enabled
• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0
• NTP stratum 2
• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225
How should R1 be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?
A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?
OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?
Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?
Refer to the exhibit.
The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?
Refer to the exhibit.
The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?
Refer to the exhibit.
All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?
Refer to the exhibit.
Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?
A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?
Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?
Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?
A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?
Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?
Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?
Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?
How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?
R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)
An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the primary link?
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the packet?
An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?
Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?
Refer to the exhibit.
Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?
Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?
Refer to the exhibit.
Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?
A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:
• The first subnet must support 24 hosts
• The second subnet must support 472 hosts
• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block
Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )
What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Host A sent a data frame destined for host D
What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?
Refer to the exhibit.
The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
Which set of 2.4 GHz nonoverlapping wireless channels is standard in the United States?
Refer to the exhibit.
All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?
Drag and drop the characteristics of device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding deployment types on the right.
Which port type does a lightweight AP use to connect to the wired network when it is configured in local mode?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must update the configuring on switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
In which structure does the word "warning" directly reside?
Which two IPv6 addresses are used to provide connectivity between two routers on a shared link? (Choose two)
Drag and chop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto their primary transmission protocols on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?
Refer to the exhibit.
All routers in the network are configured correctly, and the expected routes are being exchanged among the routeis. Which set or routes are learned from neighbors and Installed on router 2?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
What is represented beginning with line 1 and ending with line 5?
Refer to Exhibit.
Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?
What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?
Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must configure NETCONF. After creating the configuration, the engineer gets output from the command show line but not from show running- config. Which command completes the configuration?
What is the purpose of configuring different levels of syslog for different devices on the network?
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet sourced from 172.18.33.2 is destined for 172.18.32.38. Where does the router forward the packet?
An engineer is installing a new wireless printer with a static IP address on the Wi-Fi network. Which feature must be enabled and configured to prevent connection issues with the printer?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must translate the PC1 IP address to 10.199.77.100 and permit PC1 to ping the loopback 0 on router R2. What command set must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the next step to complete the implementation for the partial NAT configuration shown?
An engineer has configured the domain name, user name, and password on the local router. What is the next step to complete the configuration tor a Secure Shell access RSA key?
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined 10.10.10.16?
Drag and drop the IPv6 address details from the left onto the corresponding types on the right.
In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?
Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the description on the right.
What is the temporary state that switch ports always enter immediately after the boot process when Rapid PVST+ is used?
Refer to the exhibit.
Host A switch interface is configured in VLAN 2. Host D sends a unicast packet destined for the IP address of host A.
What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host D?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is represented by the word "switch’’ in line 2 of the JSON schema?
SW1 supports connectivity for a lobby conference room and must be secured. The engineer must limit the connectivity from PCI lo ma SW1 and SW2 network. The MAC addresses allowed must be Limited to two. Which configuration secures the conference room connectivity?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy protocol protect against on a network?
Which IP header field is changed by a Cisco device when QoS marking is enabled?
What is a reason why an administrator would choose to implement an automated network management approach?
PC1 tries to send traffic to newly installed PC2. The PC2 MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table of the switch, so the switch sends the packet to all ports in the same VLAN Which switching concept does this describe?
A client experiences slow throughput from a server that is directly connected to the core switch in a data center. A network engineer finds minimal latency on connections to the server, but data transfers are unreliable, and the output of the show Interfaces counters errors command shows a high FCS-Err count on the interface that is connected to the server. What is the cause of the throughput issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which per-hop QoS behavior is R1 applying to incoming packets?
Which two protocols are used by an administrator for authentication and configuration on access points?
What are two advantages of implementing a controller-based architecture instead of a traditional network architecture? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop the device behaviors from the left onto the matching HSRP slate on the right.
Drag and drop the characteristics of transport layer protocols from the left onto the corresponding protocols on the right.
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Which interface IP address serves as the tunnel source for CAPWAP packets from the WLC to an AP?
Refer to the exhibit.
All interfaces are in the same VLAN. All switches are configured with the default STP priorities. During the STP electronics, which switch becomes the root bridge?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which set of commands must be applied to the two switches to configure an LACP Layer 2 EtherChannel?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the IPv6 address description from the left onto the IPv6 address types on the right. Not all options are used.
A WLC sends alarms about a rogue AP, and the network administrator verifies that the alarms are caused by a legitimate autonomous AP.
Which two HTTP methods are suitable for actions performed by REST-based APIs? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right
An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the issue with the interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1?
Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?
Refer to the Exhibit.
After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. which error must be corrected?
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.
Which IP address is the source IP?
Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
Where is the interface between the control plane and data plane within the software-defined architecture?
Refer to exhibit.
Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the Types of attack that they mitigate on the right.
Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.
When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?
An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions. Which command does the implementer configure to achieve the desired result?
Refer to the exhibit.
After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface's configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?
Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?
A network analyst is tasked with configured the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?
Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is configured lo support DHCP?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?
Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?
Refer to the exhibit.
What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )
An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch.
Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?
The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?
Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right
With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?
How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?
Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)
Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two )
Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each site?
Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right
Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface.
Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEfriemet3/1/4 port on a switch?
Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch?
IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
==================
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4's LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
TESTED 15 Nov 2024
