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PRF PRINCE2 Foundation Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which should be provided by a project mandate?

Options:

A.

Terms of reference

B.

Detailed Business Case

C.

Stage tolerances

D.

Initiation Stage Plan

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Questions 5

Which is a purpose of quality planning?

Options:

A.

Define the structure of the project management team

B.

Detail the acceptance criteria, in order for the Project Board to agree the level of quality expected of the project's product

C.

Document approval records for those project products that have met their quality criteria

D.

Produce the Project Plan with resource and schedule information

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Questions 6

Which of the following statements about the Project Initiation Documentation are true?

1. The Project Initiation Documentation is used to ensure that a sound basis exists.

2. The Project Initiation Documentation should be updated at the end of each stage to reflect the current status of a project before the Project Board authorizes a project,

Options:

A.

Only 1 is true

B.

Only 2 is true

C.

Both 1 and 2 are true

D.

Neither 1 or 2 are true

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Questions 7

Which task is performed by the Change Authority?

Options:

A.

Set a change budget

B.

Approve or reject a request for change within approved limits

C.

Refer changes that exceed budgetary limits to the Project Manager for approval

D.

Update the configuration management system when a change is approved

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Questions 8

What is the first task of product-based planning?

Options:

A.

Produce the Initiation Stage Plan

B.

Write the Project Product Description

C.

Identify dependencies

D.

Create the product breakdown structure

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Questions 9

Which is a typical core activity within configuration management?

Options:

A.

Assessment

B.

Communication

C.

Quality control

D.

Status accounting

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Questions 10

How is a Benefits Review Plan used in the Closing a Project process?

Options:

A.

Checked for inclusion of activities to confirm those benefits which cannot be measured until after project closure

B.

To capture the baseline measures against which to assess benefits

C.

To capture side-effects (beneficial or adverse) identified during post-project benefits reviews

D.

To gain approval for the post-project activities and transfer responsibility to corporate or programme management

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Questions 11

Which is an objective of the Closing a Project process?

Options:

A.

Review and approve the plan for project closure

B.

Review the performance of the project against its baseline

C.

Perform any post-project reviews

D.

Create a Benefits Review Plan

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Questions 12

Which of the following statements about quality assurance and Project Assurance is true?

Options:

A.

Project Assurance is the responsibility of the corporate organization; quality assurance is the responsibility of the Project Board

B.

Project Assurance is independent of the Project; quality assurance is only independent of the Project Manager

C.

Project Assurance may be delegated within a project; quality assurance must be undertaken by the Project Board

D.

Project Assurance ensures compliance to standards within the project environment; quality assurance ensures compliance across the organization

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Questions 13

Which is a purpose of the Controlling a Stage process?

Options:

A.

Assign work to be done and take corrective action to ensure that the stage remains within tolerance

B.

Provide a fixed reference point at which acceptance for the project product is confirmed

C.

Enable the Project Board to be provided with sufficient information to authorize the next stage

D.

Enable the organization to understand the work that needs to be done to deliver the project's products

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Questions 14

What is used to identify any organization or interested party who needs to be informed of project closure?

Options:

A.

Configuration Management Strategy

B.

Project management team structure

C.

Communication Management Strategy

D.

Project Brief

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Questions 15

What should influence the Project Board's decision whether to delegate its Project Assurance responsibilities?

Options:

A.

The preference of the Project Manager

B.

Having insufficient authority to perform the role

C.

Having insufficient time to perform the role

D.

The need to involve key stakeholders on the project management team

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Questions 16

Which is a purpose of the Managing a Stage Boundary process?

Options:

A.

Provide the Project Board with sufficient information for approving the next stage

B.

Approve the next Stage Plan

C.

Review and close any risks and issues identified during the previous stage

D.

Control the link between the Project Manager and the Team Manager(s)

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Questions 17

What theme provides all management levels within the project management team with mechanisms for monitoring and control?

Options:

A.

Progress

B.

Change

C.

Organization

D.

Quality

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Questions 18

Which document should record the agreed amount of risk budget for a project?

Options:

A.

Project Brief

B.

Project Plan

C.

Risk Management Strategy

D.

Risk Register

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Questions 19

Which is a purpose of an End Stage Report?

Options:

A.

Summarize progress to enable the Project Board to decide what action to take next

B.

Summarize how the project performed against the version of the Project Initiation Documentation used to authorize it

C.

Provide the detailed analysis of a deviation and offer options for the way to proceed

D.

Provide a plan for the next stage of the project

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Questions 20

What product defines the reporting requirements between the Project Manager and Team Manager?

Options:

A.

Project Brief

B.

Product Description

C.

Team Plan

D.

Work Package

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Questions 21

Which is performed as part of the recommended risk management procedure?

Options:

A.

Allocation of a budget to investigate issues facing the project

B.

Review of risk management practices to ensure that they are performed effectively

C.

Sending of information about risks to the project to project stakeholders

D.

Resolution of conflicts between the project and the programme board

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Questions 22

What is described as an organization's unique attitude towards risk taking?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Risk management

C.

Risk evaluation

D.

Risk tolerance

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Questions 23

Which of the following are typical core activities within configuration management?

1. Planning

2. Risk assessment

3. Verification and audit

4. Identification

Options:

A.

1, 2, 3

B.

1, 2, 4

C.

1, 3 ,4

D.

2, 3, 4

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Questions 24

Which is a true statement about time-driven controls?

Options:

A.

Time-driven controls are used for monitoring the progress of Work Packages and management stages

B.

Time-driven controls take place when specific events happen

C.

Time-driven controls are produced at the end of a stage

D.

An Exception Report is a time-driven control

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Questions 25

Identify the missing words in the following sentence.

The [ ? ] should include representation to satisfy the interests of the three primary categories of stakeholders affected by a PRINCE2 project.

Options:

A.

Corporate or programme management

B.

Project Board

C.

Team Managers

D.

Project Support

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Questions 26

Why is a Project Brief produced?

Options:

A.

To act as a trigger for the Starting up a Project process

B.

To record the strategies and management controls to be used by a project

C.

To provide a full and firm foundation for the initiation of a project

D.

To be used by the Project Board as a basis for reviewing the progress of a project

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Questions 27

Which statement describes the Implement' step within the recommended risk management procedure?

Options:

A.

Take planned action to respond to a risk

B.

Implement the responsibilities for risks defined in the Risk Management Strategy

C.

Assess the proximity of a risk

D.

Identify the level of risks that can be tolerated by the project

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Questions 28

Who should use the information in a Lessons Report to refine, change and improve the standards within a quality management system?

Options:

A.

Corporate group

B.

Project Board

C.

Project Assurance

D.

Executive

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Questions 29

Which is NOT a type of issue?

Options:

A.

A problem/concern

B.

A constraint

C.

An off-specification

D.

A request for change

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Questions 30

Which role is responsible for the management of a risk assigned to it?

Options:

A.

Project Support

B.

Risk owner

C.

Risk actionee

D.

Project Assurance

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Questions 31

Which is an objective of the Initiating a Project process?

Options:

A.

Develop the corporate quality management system as part of the Project Initiation Documentation

B.

Prepare the plans for the subsequent stages

C.

Summarize how the organization's project management method will be tailored for the project

D.

Request authority from corporate management to deliver the project

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Questions 32

What product records any time tolerances agreed between the Project Manager and Team Manager?

Options:

A.

Product Description

B.

Work Package

C.

Project Initiation Documentation

D.

Stage Plan

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Questions 33

Which is a purpose of the Initiating a Project process?

Options:

A.

Decide if it is worthwhile to initiate a project

B.

Decide on the project approach

C.

Establish solid foundations for a project

D.

Identify the number of Work Packages required

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Questions 34

What theme provides the justification for the project?

Options:

A.

Quality

B.

Plans

C.

Progress

D.

Business Case

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Questions 35

Which is the Change Authority role permitted to authorize?

Options:

A.

Risks to the project

B.

Adjustments to the limits on the change budget

C.

Changes to stage tolerance

D.

Changes to the project that do not exceed a defined budget

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Questions 36

Identify the missing words in the following sentence.

Configuration management typically includes [ ? ] as one of the five core activities.

Options:

A.

exception planning

B.

risk assessment

C.

stakeholder engagement

D.

status accounting

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Exam Code: PRF
Exam Name: PRINCE2 Foundation
Last Update: Dec 22, 2024
Questions: 244