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IIA-CCSA Certification in Control Self-Assessment® (CCSA®) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Employees are provided a proper amount of supervision in:

Options:

A.

Establishment of organizational objectives

B.

Oversight groups

C.

Assignment of authority

D.

Human resource policies and practices

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Questions 5

What is defined and collected in a similar manner from period to period to enable users to have a basis for comparing performance over time?

Options:

A.

Controllability

B.

Consistency

C.

Efficiency

D.

Completeness

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Questions 6

Post implementation reviews of projects allow management to assess the degree to which the objectives were achieved for the resources expended in which phase of project management?

Options:

A.

Implementation

B.

Follow-up

C.

Reporting

D.

Analyzing

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Questions 7

Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

External control is geared to the achievement of objectives in one or more dispersed categories.

B.

Internal control is geared to the achievement of objectives in one or more separate but overlapping categories.

C.

External control is geared to the achievement of objectives in one or more separate but overlapping categories.

D.

Internal control is geared to the achievement of objectives in one or more dispersed categories.

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Questions 8

Which of the following is NOT the external factor that could affect the organization?

Options:

A.

activities or initiatives by industry competitors

B.

changes in production quotas or deadlines

C.

economic shifts

D.

technological advancements

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Questions 9

An ethical tone has been established at the top of the organization and has been communicated throughout the organization.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 10

No proper documentation of adds, changes or deletions to vendor master file is a fraud warning sign of:

Options:

A.

Personality characteristics

B.

Organizational characteristics

C.

Accounts payable

D.

Accounts receivable

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Questions 11

People who make decisions themselves and issue orders to subordinates without seeking their input and without regard to their feelings are known as:

Options:

A.

Practitioners

B.

Stakeholders

C.

Participative managers

D.

Internal auditors

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Questions 12

A process to identify events potentially affecting the entity and manage risk within its risk appetite is known as:

Options:

A.

Enterprise Risk Management

B.

Stricter Risk Disclosure

C.

Overlapping Risk Classification

D.

Risk Management Strategy

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Questions 13

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.

Employees working in a process are in a good position to identify ways to eliminate waste and streamline production through more efficient use of resources.

B.

Employees working in a process are in a good position to identify ways to eliminate waste and streamline production through better understanding of responsibility.

C.

Employees working in a process are in a good position to identify ways to eliminate waste and streamline production through improved communication.

D.

Employees working in a process are in a good position to identify ways to eliminate waste and streamline production through effective team building.

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Questions 14

Which of the following is NOT the process risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Risk Management

B.

Risk Identification

C.

Risk Measurement

D.

Risk Prioritization

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Questions 15

The change that results in a need to change policies, procedures, staffing levels or goals refers to which change?

Options:

A.

Change in policy

B.

Change in technology

C.

Change in practices

D.

Change in expertise

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Questions 16

Management styles can be categorized in which two classifications?

Options:

A.

Practitioner management and participative management

B.

Autocratic management and participative management

C.

Arbitrary management and exclusive management

D.

Autocratic management and proactive management

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Questions 17

What is the additional evidence in support of primary or secondary evidence?

Options:

A.

Trend comparison

B.

Data synthesis

C.

Risk control

D.

Corroborative evidence

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Questions 18

Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

the end product of strategic planning is the operational plan

B.

the start product of strategic planning is the strategic plan

C.

the end product of strategic planning is the strategic plan

D.

the end product of operational planning is the strategic plan

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Questions 19

In which standard, the chief executive should establish a follow-up process to monitor and ensure that management actions have been effectively implemented or that senior management has accepted the risk of not taking action.

Options:

A.

2050.C1- Investigating progress

B.

2500.A3- Implementing progress

C.

2500.A1- Monitoring progress

D.

2500.A2- Mitigating progress

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Questions 20

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.

The decision symbol have three exit points, these can be on the sides and the bottom.

B.

Flowcharts generally flow from top to bottom and right to left.

C.

Flowchart symbols may or may not start with a terminal symbol.

D.

Flowchart symbols should have a single entry point on the bottom of the symbol.

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Questions 21

Under the Securities and Exchange Commission’s final rules, management’s annual internal control report must avoid:

Options:

A.

Identify the framework used by management to evaluate effectiveness of internal control.

B.

Shun around the internal control over financial reporting for the company.

C.

Management’s assessment of the effectiveness of the internal control.

D.

A statement that auditor has to issue an attention report on management’s assessment.

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Questions 22

Effectively coordinating the activities of and communicating information among the board, external and internal auditors and management is one of the objectives of:

Options:

A.

Internal audit activity

B.

External audit activity

C.

Activity entrustment

D.

Activity Control

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Questions 23

__________ is relating to the entity’s fulfillment with applicable laws and regulations.

Options:

A.

Compliance control

B.

Efficiency control

C.

Timeliness control

D.

Law enforcement

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Questions 24

Which structures characterized by fast information flow between levels of the organization and high employee satisfaction?

Options:

A.

Complex

B.

Centralized

C.

Productive

D.

Flat

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Questions 25

If morale is high, values and ethics are not a priority and employees are not aligned to the objectives of the organizations.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 26

Which of the following is NOT the potential benefit of the CSA to the internal auditing?

Options:

A.

Improved employee morale

B.

Improved ability to test informal controls

C.

More efficient use of audit resources

D.

Better ability to focus on high-risk areas

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Questions 27

__________ can be used in control self-assessment workshops in conjunction with other interactive programs such as OptionFinder to allow participants to anonymously express their opinions on the information presented.

Options:

A.

Presentation devices

B.

Seminar software

C.

Occupational software

D.

Presentation software

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Questions 28

Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

Its difficult that CSA can help audit to focus on high risk issues and concentrate their traditional audit effort there.

B.

CSA can help Inventory to focus on high risk issues and concentrate their traditional inventory effort there.

C.

CSA can help audit to focus on high risk issues and concentrate their advanced audit effort there.

D.

CSA can help audit to focus on high risk issues and concentrate their traditional audit effort there.

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Questions 29

_________ are preferred if the culture in the organization may hinder open, candid discussions in workshop settings or of management desires to minimize the time spent and cost incurred in gathering the information.

Options:

A.

Interviews

B.

Surveys

C.

Dialogues

D.

Conferences

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Questions 30

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.

Competency refers to the validity and reliability of audit evidence.

B.

Sufficiency refers to the validity and reliability of resources.

C.

Capability refers to the capacity and reliability of audit evidence.

D.

Consistency refers to the steadiness and reliability of audit evidence

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Questions 31

Operational risk is the day to day mitigation of safety and health risks of employees performing their jobs.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 32

In traditional approach, final report is issued by management and in control selfassessment approach it is issued by work teams’.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 33

To test transactions for errors, which tool is used by using confirmation technique?

Options:

A.

Checklists

B.

Control evaluation tables

C.

Audit software

D.

Sampling software

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Questions 34

Information related to either the elements outside the organization’s control or to elements that the organization can control at least to some extent is called:

Options:

A.

Performance

B.

Organizational

C.

Explanatory

D.

None of the above

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Questions 35

The technique which allows for the study of past and current patterns and can be used to project future patterns is called:

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Examination

C.

Data collection

D.

Time series

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Questions 36

The process of helping management and/or work teams assess the likelihood of meeting business objectives is called:

Options:

A.

CSA facilitation

B.

CSA process

C.

CSA goal

D.

CSA function

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Questions 37

Outcome measures are:

Options:

A.

only quantitative and measure results associated with only products delivered by an organization.

B.

both quantitative and qualitative and measure both results associated with products and services delivered by an organization.

C.

only qualitative and measure results associated with only services delivered by an organization.

D.

none of the above

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Questions 38

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.

Workshops involve gathering information from individuals representing different levels in the press.

B.

Workshops involve gathering information from work teams representing different levels in the business unit or function.

C.

Workshops involve gathering information from individuals representing similar levels in the business unit or function.

D.

Workshops involve gathering information from work teams representing similar levels in the lobby.

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Questions 39

What is used to develop and manage the current period of organizational activity?

Options:

A.

People

B.

Process

C.

Product

D.

Project

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Questions 40

Adjusting entries made without formal approval is a fraud warning of financial characteristics.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Exam Code: IIA-CCSA
Exam Name: Certification in Control Self-Assessment® (CCSA®)
Last Update: Dec 22, 2024
Questions: 270

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