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IIA-ACCA ACCA CIA Challenge Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

An organization's balance sheet indicates that the total asset amount and the total capital stock amount remained unchanged from one year to the next, and no dividends were declared or paid. However, the organization reported a loss of $200,000. Which of the following describes the most likely year-over-year change to the organization's total liabilities and total stockholder equity?

Options:

A.

The total liabilities and total stockholder equity both increased.

B.

The total liabilities and total stockholder equity both decreased.

C.

The total liabilities decreased, and the total stockholder equity increased.

D.

The total liabilities increased, and the total stockholder equity decreased.

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Questions 5

Which of the following authentication controls combines what a user knows with the unique characteristics of the user respectively?

Options:

A.

Voice recognition and token.

B.

Password and fingerprint.

C.

Fingerprint and voice recognition

D.

Password and token

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Questions 6

An organization has started allowing employees to use their personal smart devices to accept vendor payments. What should the organization's bring-your-own-device (BYOD) policy include to specifically address security and privacy required by the Payment Card Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)?

Options:

A.

Approved devices

B.

Mobile applications

C.

Data storage.

D.

Backups and transfers

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Questions 7

Which of the following statements is true regarding the resolution of interpersonal conflict?

Options:

A.

Unrealized expectations can be avoided with open and honest discussion.

B.

Reorganization would probably not help ambiguous or overlapping jurisdictions.

C.

Deferring action should be used until there is sufficient time to fully deal with the issue.

D.

Timely and unambiguous clarification of roles and responsibilities will eliminate most interpersonal conflict.

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Questions 8

Which of the following application software features is the least effective control to protect passwords?

Options:

A.

Suspension of user IDs after a user's repeated attempts to sign on with an invalid password.

B.

Encryption of passwords prior to their transmission or storage.

C.

Forced change of passwords after a designated number of days.

D.

Automatic logoff of inactive users after a specified time period of inactivity.

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Questions 9

Data encryption is an example of which of the following controls?

Options:

A.

Application control.

B.

IT general control

C.

Data input control

D.

Data output control

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Questions 10

All of the following are true with regard to the first-in, first-out inventory valuation method except:

Options:

A.

It values inventory close to current replacement cost.

B.

It generates the highest profit when prices are rising.

C.

It approximates the physical flow of goods.

D.

It minimizes current-period income taxes.

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Questions 11

Which of the following is a characteristic of just-in-time inventory management systems?

Options:

A.

Users determine the optimal level of safety stocks.

B.

They are applicable only to large organizations.

C.

They do not really increase overall economic efficiency because they merely shift inventory levels further up the supply chain.

D.

They rely heavily on high quality materials.

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Questions 12

Which mindset promotes the most comprehensive risk management strategy?

Options:

A.

Increase shareholder value.

B.

Maximize market share.

C.

Improve operational efficiency.

D.

Mitigate losses.

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Questions 13

The first stage in the development of a crisis management program is to:

Options:

A.

Formulate contingency plans.

B.

Conduct a risk analysis.

C.

Create a crisis management team.

D.

Practice the response to a crisis.

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Questions 14

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding analytical procedures?

Options:

A.

Data relationships are assumed to exist and to continue where no known conflicting conditions exist.

B.

Analytical procedures are intended primarily to ensure the accuracy of the information being examined.

C.

Data relationships cannot include comparisons between operational and statistical data

D.

Analytical procedures can be used to identify unexpected differences but cannot be used to identify the absence of differences

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Questions 15

Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship between an individual’s average tax rate and marginal tax rate?

Options:

A.

In a regressive personal tax system, an individual's marginal tax rate is normally greater than his average tax rate.

B.

In a regressive personal tax system, an individual's marginal tax rate is normally equal to his average tax rate.

C.

In a progressive personal tax system, an individual's marginal tax rate is normally equal to his average tax rate.

D.

In a progressive personal tax system, an individual's marginal tax rate is normally greater than his average tax rate.

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Questions 16

According to the Standards, which of the following is based on the assertion that the quality of an organization's risk management process should improve with time?

Options:

A.

Process element.

B.

Key principles.

C.

Maturity model.

D.

Assurance.

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Questions 17

Division A produces a product with a variable cost of $5 per unit and an allocated fixed cost of S3 per unit The market price of the product is S15 plus 20 percent selling cost. Division B currently purchases this product from an external supplier but is going to purchase it from division A for S18 Which of the following methods of transfer pricing is being used?

Options:

A.

Market price.

B.

Negotiation-based.

C.

Full absorption cost

D.

Variable cost

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Questions 18

Preferred stock is less risky for investors than is common stock because:

Options:

A.

Common stock pays dividends as a stated percentage of face value.

B.

Common stock has priority over preferred stock with regard to earnings and assets.

C.

Preferred dividends are usually cumulative.

D.

Preferred stock with no conversion feature has a higher dividend yield than does convertible preferred stock.

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Questions 19

A department purchased one copy of a software program for internal use. The manager of the department installed the program on an office computer and then made two complete copies of the original software.

Copy 1 was solely for backup purposes.

Copy 2 was for use by another member of the department.

In terms of software licenses and copyright law, which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

Both copies are legal.

B.

Only copy 1 is legal.

C.

Only copy 2 is legal.

D.

Neither copy is legal.

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Questions 20

What kind of strategy would be most effective for an organization to adopt in order to implement a unique advertising campaign for selling identical product lines across all of its markets?

Options:

A.

Export strategy

B.

Transnational strategy.

C.

Multi-domestic strategy

D.

Globalization strategy.

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Questions 21

An internationally recognized brand name is an entrance barrier to new competitors because new competitors would:

Options:

A.

Have to initiate a price war in order to enter the industry.

B.

Face increased production costs.

C.

Face increased marketing costs.

D.

Face higher learning costs, which would increase fixed costs.

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Questions 22

An organization is considering the outsourcing of its business processes related to payroll and information technology functions. Which of the following is the most significant area of concern for management regarding this proposed agreement?

Options:

A.

Ensuring that payments to the vendor are appropriate and timely for the services delivered.

B.

Ensuring that the vendor has complete management control of the outsourced process.

C.

Ensuring that there are means of monitoring the efficiency of the outsourced process.

D.

Ensuring that there are means of monitoring the effectiveness of the outsourced process.

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Questions 23

Which of the following is a strategy that organizations can use to stimulate innovation?

1. Source from the most advanced suppliers.

2. Establish employee programs that reward initiative.

3. Identify best practice competitors as motivators.

4. Ensure that performance targets are always achieved.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 3 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Questions 24

Which of the following application controls checks the integrity of data entered into a business application?

Options:

A.

Input controls.

B.

Output controls

C.

Processing controls

D.

Integrity controls

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Questions 25

Which audit approach should be employed to test the accuracy of information housed in a database on an un-networked computer?

Options:

A.

Submit batches of test transactions through the current system and verify with expected results.

B.

Use a test program to simulate the normal data entering process.

C.

Select a sample of records from the database and ensure it matches supporting documentation.

D.

Evaluate compliance with the organization's change management process.

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Questions 26

An internal auditor is reviewing physical and environmental controls for an IT organization. Which control activity should not be part of this review?

Options:

A.

Develop and test the organization's disaster recovery plan.

B.

Install and test fire detection and suppression equipment.

C.

Restrict access to tangible IT resources.

D.

Ensure that at least one developer has access to both systems and operations.

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Questions 27

According to Porter's model of competitive strategy, which of the following is a generic strategy?

1. Differentiation.

2. Competitive advantage.

3. Focused differentiation.

4. Cost focus.

Options:

A.

2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Questions 28

Which of the following describes a typical desktop workstation used by most employees in their daily work?

Options:

A.

Workstation contains software that prevents unauthorized transmission of information into and out of the organization's network.

B.

Workstation contains software that controls information flow between the organization's network and the Internet.

C.

Workstation contains software that enables the processing of transactions and is not shared among users of the organization's network.

D.

Workstation contains software that manages user's access and processing of stored data on the organization's network.

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Questions 29

Which of the following would provide the most relevant assurance that the application under development will provide maximum value to the organization?

Options:

A.

Use of a formal systems development lifecycle.

B.

End-user involvement.

C.

Adequate software documentation.

D.

Formalized non-regression testing phase.

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Questions 30

Within an enterprise, IT governance relates to the:

1. Alignment between the enterprise's IT long term plan and the organization's objectives.

2. Organizational structures of the company that are designed to ensure that IT supports the organization's strategies and objectives.

3. Operational plans established to support the IT strategies and objectives.

4. Role of the company's leadership in ensuring IT supports the organization's strategies and objectives.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

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Questions 31

If observed during fieldwork by an internal auditor, which of the following activities is least important to communicate formally to the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

Acts that may endanger the health or safety of individuals.

B.

Acts that favor one party to the detriment of another.

C.

Acts that damage or have an adverse effect on the environment.

D.

Acts that conceal inappropriate activities in the organization.

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Questions 32

An internal auditor is conducting an assessment of the purchasing department. She has worked the full amount of hours budgeted for the engagement; however, the audit objectives are not yet complete. According to IIA guidance, which of the following are appropriate options available to the chief audit executive?

1. Allow the auditor to decide whether to extend the audit engagement.

2. Determine whether the work already completed is sufficient to conclude the engagement.

3. Provide the auditor feedback on areas of improvement for future engagements.

4. Provide the auditor with instructions and directions to complete the audit.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 33

Which of the following would not be a typical activity for the chief audit executive to perform following an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Report follow-up activities to senior management.

B.

Implement follow-up procedures to evaluate residual risk.

C.

Determine the costs of implementing the recommendations.

D.

Evaluate the extent of improvements.

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Questions 34

Which of the following factors would the auditor in charge be least likely to consider when assigning tasks to audit team members for an engagement?

Options:

A.

The amount of experience the auditors have conducting audits in the specific area of the organization.

B.

The availability of the auditors in relation to the availability of key client staff.

C.

Whether the budgeted hours are sufficient to complete the audit within the current scope.

D.

Whether outside resources will be needed, and their availability.

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Questions 35

Which of the following is not a primary purpose for conducting a walk-through during the initial stages of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

To help develop process maps.

B.

To determine segregation of duties.

C.

To identify residual risks.

D.

To test the adequacy of controls.

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Questions 36

After the team member who specialized in fraud investigations left the internal audit team, the chief audit executive decided to outsource fraud investigations to a third party service provider on an as needed basis. Which of the following is most likely to be a disadvantage of this outsourcing decision?

Options:

A.

Cost.

B.

Independence.

C.

Familiarity.

D.

Flexibility.

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Questions 37

An internal auditor is conducting a review of the procurement function and uncovers a potential conflict of interest between the chief operating officer and a significant supplier of IT software development services. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Inform the audit supervisor.

B.

Investigate the potential conflict of interest.

C.

Inform the external auditors of the potential conflict of interest.

D.

Disregard the potential conflict, because it is outside the scope of the audit assignment.

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Questions 38

After finalizing an assurance engagement concerning safety operations in the oil mining process, the audit team concluded that no key controls were compromised. However, some opportunities for improvement were noted. Which of the following would be the most appropriate way for the chief audit executive (CAE) to report these results?

Options:

A.

The CAE should send the final report to operational and senior management and the audit committee.

B.

The CAE should send the final report to operational management only, as there is no need to communicate this information to higher levels.

C.

The CAE should notify operational and senior management that the audit engagement was completed with no significant findings to report.

D.

The CAE should send the final report to operational management and notify senior management and the audit committee that no significant findings were identified.

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Questions 39

Due to a recent system upgrade, an audit is planned to test the payroll process. Which of the following audit objectives would be most important to prevent fraud?

Options:

A.

Verify that amounts are correct.

B.

Verify that payments are on time.

C.

Verify that recipients are valid employees.

D.

Verify that benefits deductions are accurate.

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Questions 40

According to IIA guidance, which of the following accurately describes the responsibilities of the chief audit executive with respect to the final audit report?

1. Coordinate post-engagement conferences to discuss the final audit report with management.

2. Include management's responses in the final audit report.

3. Review and approve the final audit report.

4. Determine who will receive the final audit report.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 41

Due to price risk from the foreign currency purchase of aviation fuel, an airliner has purchased forward contracts to hedge against fluctuations in the exchange rate. When recalculating the exchange losses from individual purchases of jet fuel, which of the following details does the internal auditor need to validate?

1. The hedge documentation designating the hedge.

2. The spot exchange rate on the transaction date.

3. The terms of the forward contract.

4. The amount of fuel purchased.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 42

An internal auditor and engagement client are deadlocked over the auditor's differing opinion with management on the adequacy of access controls for a major system. Which of the following strategies would be the most helpful in resolving this dispute?

Options:

A.

Conduct a joint brainstorming session with management.

B.

Ask the chief audit executive to mediate.

C.

Disclose the client's differing opinion in the final report.

D.

Escalate the issue to senior management for a decision.

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Questions 43

Which of the following evaluation criteria would be the most useful to help the chief audit executive determine whether an external service provider possesses the knowledge, skills, and other competencies needed to perform a review?

Options:

A.

The financial interest the service provider may have in the organization.

B.

The relationship the service provider may have had with the organization or the activities being reviewed.

C.

Compensation or other incentives that may be applicable to the service provider.

D.

The service provider's experience in the type of work being considered.

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Questions 44

During an audit of the accounts receivable (AR) process, an internal auditor noted that reconciliations are still not performed regularly by the AR staff, a recommendation that was made following a previous audit. Monitoring by the financial reporting function has failed to detect the shortcoming. Both the financial reporting function and AR report to the controller, who is responsible for implementing action plans. Which of the following supports the internal auditor's decision to combine both observations into one reported finding?

Options:

A.

The observation was made during the same audit, and the action plan has a common owner.

B.

The observation relates to the same control activity within a common process.

C.

The observation has a common control, and it was noted in a prior audit.

D.

The observation has a common process, and the action plan for the observation has a common owner.

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Questions 45

Which of the following components should be included in an audit finding?

1. The scope of the audit.

2. The standard(s) used by the auditor to make the evaluation.

3. The engagement's objectives.

4. The factual evidence that the internal auditor found in the course of the examination.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

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Questions 46

Which of the following is a detective control for managing the risk of fraud?

Options:

A.

Awareness of prior incidents of fraud.

B.

Contractor non-disclosure agreements.

C.

Verification of currency exchange rates.

D.

Receipts for employee expenses.

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Questions 47

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions might place the independence of the internal audit function in jeopardy?

Options:

A.

Having no active role or involvement in the risk management process.

B.

Auditing the risk management process for reasonableness.

C.

Coordinating and managing the risk management process.

D.

Participating with management in identifying and evaluating risks.

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Questions 48

An internal auditor is conducting a financial audit. Which of the following audit procedures is most appropriate when existing internal controls are weak?

Options:

A.

Analytical procedures.

B.

Detail testing.

C.

Test of design.

D.

Test of control.

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Questions 49

Which of the following statements is true pertaining to interviewing a fraud suspect?

1. Information gathered can be subjective as well as objective to be useful.

2. The primary objective is to obtain a voluntary written confession.

3. The interviewer is likely to begin the interview with open-ended questions.

4. Video recordings always should be used to provide the highest quality evidence.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

4 only

C.

1 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 50

A chief audit executive (CAE) is determining which engagements to include on the annual audit plan. She would like to consider the organization's attitude toward risk and the degree of difficulty in achieving objectives. Which of the following resources should the CAE consult?

Options:

A.

The corporate risk register.

B.

The strategic plan.

C.

Internal and external audit reports.

D.

The board's meeting records.

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Questions 51

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is least likely to be a key financial control in an organization's accounts payable process?

Options:

A.

Require the approval of additions and changes to the vendor master listing, where the inherent risk of false vendors is high.

B.

Monitor amounts paid each period and compare them to the budget to identify potential issues.

C.

Compare employee addresses to vendor addresses to identify potential employee fraud.

D.

Monitor customer quality complaints compared to the prior period to identify vendor issues.

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Questions 52

According to IIA guidance, which of the following are the most important objectives for helping to ensure the appropriate completion of an engagement?

1. Coordinate audit team members to ensure the efficient execution of all engagement procedures.

2. Confirm engagement workpapers properly support the observations, recommendations, and conclusions.

3. Provide structured learning opportunities for engagement auditors when possible.

4. Ensure engagement objectives are reviewed for satisfactory achievement and are documented properly.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 53

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements are true regarding the internal audit plan?

1. The audit plan is based on an assessment of risks to the organization.

2. The audit plan is designed to determine the effectiveness of the organization's risk management process.

3. The audit plan is developed by senior management of the organization.

4. The audit plan is aligned with the organization's goals.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

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Questions 54

An audit identified a number of weaknesses in the configuration of a critical client/server system. Although some of the weaknesses were corrected prior to the issuance of the audit report, correction of the rest will require between 6 and 18 months for completion. Consequently, management has developed a detailed action plan, with anticipated completion dates, for addressing the weaknesses. What is the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to take?

Options:

A.

Assess the status of corrective action during a follow-up audit engagement after the action plan has been completed.

B.

Assess the effectiveness of corrections by reviewing statistics related to unplanned system outages, and denials of service.

C.

Reassign information systems auditors to assist in implementing management's action plan.

D.

Evaluate the ability of the action plan to correct the weaknesses and monitor key dates and deliverables.

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Questions 55

The chief risk officer (CRO) of a large manufacturing organization decided to facilitate a workshop for process managers and staff to identify opportunities for improving productivity and reducing defects. Which of the following is the most likely reason the CRO chose the workshop approach?

Options:

A.

It minimizes the amount of time spent and cost incurred to gather the necessary information.

B.

Responses can be confidential, thus encouraging participants to be candid expressing their concerns.

C.

Workshops do not require extensive facilitation skills and are therefore ideal for nonauditors.

D.

Workshop participants have an opportunity to learn while contributing ideas toward the objectives.

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Questions 56

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements best justifies a chief audit executive's request for external consultants to complement internal audit activity (IAA) resources?

Options:

A.

The organization's audit universe is extensive and diverse.

B.

There has been an increase in unanticipated requests for advisory work.

C.

Previous work provided by the external service provider has been of great quality and value.

D.

A recent benchmarking study found that using external service providers is a common practice of similarly-sized IAAs in other organizations.

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Questions 57

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a small internal audit activity (IAA) plans to test conformance with the Standards through a quality assurance review. According to the Standards, which of the following are acceptable practice for this review?

1. Use an external service provider.

2. Conduct a self-assessment with independent validation.

3. Arrange for a review by qualified employees outside of the IAA.

4. Arrange for reciprocal peer review with another CAE.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 4

C.

1, 2, and 3

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 58

Which of the following best illustrates the primary focus of a risk-based approach to control self-assessment?

Options:

A.

To evaluate controls regarding the computer security of an oil refinery.

B.

To examine the processes involved in exploring, developing, and operating a gold mine.

C.

To assess the likelihood and impact of events associated with operating a finished goods warehouse.

D.

To link a financial institution's business objectives to a work unit responsible for the associated risk.

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Questions 59

Which of the following is an appropriate role for the internal audit activity with regard to the organization's risk management program?

Options:

A.

Identify and manage risks in line with the organization's risk appetite.

B.

Ensure that a proper and effective risk management process exists.

C.

Attain an adequate understanding of the organization's key risk mitigation strategies.

D.

Identify and ensure that appropriate controls exist to mitigate risks.

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Questions 60

An organization's internal audit plan includes a recurring assurance review of the human resources (HR) department. Which of the following statements is true regarding preliminary communication between the auditor in charge (AIC) and the HR department?

1. The AIC should notify HR management when the draft audit plan is being developed, as a courtesy.

2. The AIC should notify HR management before the planning stage begins.

3. The AIC should schedule formal status meetings with HR management at the start of the engagement.

4. The AIC should finalize the scope of the engagement before communicating with HR management.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 61

With regard To IT governance, which of the following is the most effective and appropriate role for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Independently evaluate the skills and experience of potential chief information officer candidates to assess the best fit based on the organization's risk appetite.

B.

Evaluate the organization's governance standards and assess IT-related activities to identify gaps and develop policies, ensuring alignment with the organization's risk appetite.

C.

Assist management in interpreting complex IT-related privacy and security risk exposures and evaluating potential mitigation strategies.

D.

Assess whether governance activities are aligned with the organization's risk appetite and take into consideration emerging risks.

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Questions 62

Which segregation of duties would best reduce the risk of payroll fraud?

Options:

A.

Human resources personnel add employees, and payroll personnel process hours and enter employee bank account numbers. Paychecks are automatically deposited in the employee's bank account.

B.

Human resources personnel add employees, payroll personnel process hours, and human resources personnel deliver paychecks to employees.

C.

Human resources personnel add employees, review and submit payroll hours to the payroll department for processing, and deliver paychecks to employees.

D.

Human resources personnel add employees and enter employee bank information. Payroll personnel process hours, and paychecks are automatically deposited in the employee's bank account.

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Questions 63

Which of the following would be the most appropriate first step for the board to take when developing an effective system of governance?

Options:

A.

Determine the organization's overall risk appetite.

B.

Establish a governance committee.

C.

Delegate authority to members of senior management.

D.

Identify key stakeholders and their expectations.

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Questions 64

A medical insurance provider uses an electronic claims-submission process and suspects that a number of physicians have submitted claims for treatments that were not performed. Which of the following control procedures would be most effective to detect this type of fraud?

Options:

A.

Require the physician to submit a signed statement attesting that the treatments had been performed.

B.

Send confirmations to the physicians, requesting them to verify the exact nature of the claims submitted to the insurance provider.

C.

Develop an integrated test facility and submit false claims to verify that the system is detecting such claims on a consistent basis.

D.

Use computer software to identify abnormal claims based on the insured's age and medical history.

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Questions 65

According to IIA guidance, which of the following practices by the chief audit executive (CAE) best enhances the organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

CAE reviews and approves the annual audit plan.

B.

CAE meets privately with The CEO at least annually.

C.

CAE meets privately with The board at least annually.

D.

CAE reports to the board regarding audit staff performance evaluation and compensation.

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Questions 66

A new director was hired to lead the internal audit activity at a small start-up company. Which of the following assignments would impair the director's independence?

Options:

A.

Preparing the financial statements for the company's defined contribution plan.

B.

Performing a pre-implementation review of the company's payroll application.

C.

Providing the COBIT framework as a possible IT management tool.

D.

Reviewing the company's policy for foreign currency translation adjustments for compliance with accounting standards.

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Questions 67

A multinational organization has asked the internal audit activity to assist in setting up the organization's risk management system. The chief audit executive (CAE) agrees to take on the engagement as a consultant. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the CAE to undertake?

Options:

A.

Coordinate and facilitate risk workshops for management to attend.

B.

Establish the degree of risk appetite for management to accept.

C.

Set risk indicators and mitigation plans for management to implement.

D.

Determine the number of significant risks for management to report to the board.

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Questions 68

Given the highly technical and legal nature of privacy issues, which of the following statements best describes the internal audit activity's responsibility with regard to assessing an organization's privacy framework?

Options:

A.

If an organization does not have a mature privacy framework, the internal audit activity should assist in developing and implementing an appropriate privacy framework.

B.

Because the audit committee is ultimately responsible for ensuring that appropriate control processes are in place to mitigate risks associated with personal information, the internal audit activity is C. required to conduct privacy assessments.

C.

The internal audit activity may delegate to nonaudit IT specialists the responsibility of determining whether personal information has been secured adequately and data protection controls are sufficient.

D.

The internal audit activity should have appropriate knowledge and competence to conduct an asses .......framework.

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Questions 69

Management is developing and implementing a risk and control framework for use throughout the organization. Which of the following elements should be included in the organization's control framework?

1. Appropriate levels of authority and responsibility.

2. Supervision of staff and appropriate review of work.

3. The seniority of management in the organization.

4. The ability to trace each transaction to an accountable and responsible individual.

Options:

A.

1,2, and 3.

B.

1.2, and 4.

C.

1.3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4.

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Questions 70

Which of the following is an example of collusion?

Options:

A.

An employee includes a faked receipt in his expense claim, and the claim is signed by the employee's manager.

B.

A vendor inflates the price of an item and remits a portion of the excess to the purchasing manager.

C.

A vendor sends a duplicate invoice with a new invoice number, and the accounts payable system fails to detect the duplication.

D.

An employee works with the IT manager to develop a program for identifying duplicate invoice payments.

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Questions 71

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements about working papers is false?

Options:

A.

They assist in the implementation of recommendations.

B.

They provide support for communication to third parties.

C.

They demonstrate compliance with auditing standards.

D.

They contribute to development of the internal audit staff.

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Questions 72

A snow removal company is conducting a scenario planning exercise where participating employees consider the potential impacts of a significant reduction in annua snowfall for the coming winter. Which of the following best describes this type of risk?

Options:

A.

Residual.

B.

Net.

C.

Inherent.

D.

Accepted.

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Questions 73

According to The MA Code of Ethics, which of the following is one of the rules of conduct for objectivity?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors shall continually improve their proficiency and effectiveness and quality of their services.

B.

Internal auditors shall respect and contribute to legitimate and ethical objectives of the organization.

C.

Internal auditors shall not accept anything that may impair or be presumed to impair their professional judgment.

D.

Internal auditors shall be prudent in the use and protection of information acquired in the course of their duties.

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Questions 74

Which of the following techniques would provide the most compelling evidence that a safety hazard exists within a manufacturing facility?

Options:

A.

Observation of the facility during operations.

B.

Questioning of facility management, including the facility safety officer.

C.

Analysis of facility operating reports, focusing on instances when breakdowns occurred.

D.

Review of records involving safety violations, filed by facility production employees.

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Questions 75

Which of the following is not an objective of internal control?

Options:

A.

Compliance.

B.

Accuracy.

C.

Efficiency.

D.

Validation.

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Questions 76

According to IIA guidance, when preparing the charter for the internal audit activity, the chief audit executive (CAE), board, and senior management should agree on which of the following?

1. The standards to be used by the internal audit activity.

2. The internal audit activity's code of ethics.

3. The CAE's reporting line.

4. The internal audit activity's responsibilities.

Options:

A.

4 only.

B.

1 and 2 only.

C.

3 and 4.

D.

1,2, and 3.

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Questions 77

Which of the following best explains why integrity is a necessary personal quality for internal auditors at all levels?

Options:

A.

Internal auditor integrity enables stakeholders to constantly question the work of the internal audit activity.

B.

Internal auditor integrity enables the internal auditor to avoid being challenged by any party in the organization.

C.

Internal auditor integrity enables the internal audit activity to be able to demonstrate independence.

D.

Internal auditor integrity enables users of internal auditors' work to make important business decisions.

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Questions 78

An IT contractor applied for an internal audit position at a bank. The contractor worked for the bank's IT security manager two years ago. If the audit manager interviewed the contractor and wants to extend a job offer, which of the following actions should the chief audit executive pursue?

Options:

A.

Allow the audit manager to hire the contractor and state that the individual is free to perform IT audits, including security.

B.

Not allow the audit manager to hire the contractor, as it would be a conflict of interest.

C.

Allow the audit manager to hire the contractor, but state that the individual is not allowed to work on IT security audits for one year.

D.

Not allow the audit manager to hire the contractor and ask the individual to apply again in one year.

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Questions 79

An organization invests its savings in a volatile stock with the potential for high gains rather than a mutual fund with a lower expected return and lower volatility. This best describes which of the following risk concepts?

Options:

A.

Risk identification.

B.

Risk appetite.

C.

Risk capacity.

D.

Risk tolerance.

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Questions 80

According to IIA guidance, which of the following must the internal auditor consider to meet the requirements for due professional care?

Options:

A.

The training courses necessary to enhance the internal auditor's knowledge, skills, and other competencies.

B.

The appropriateness of assurance procedures necessary to ensure all significant risks will be identified.

C.

The use of innovative technology and data analysis techniques.

D.

The extent of work needed to achieve the engagement’s objectives.

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Questions 81

When auditing the award of a major contract, which of the following should an internal auditor suspect as a red flag for a bidding fraud scheme?

1. Subsequent change orders increase requirements for low-bid items.

2. Material contract requirements are different on the actual contract than on the request for bids.

3. A high percentage of employees are charged to indirect accounts.

4. Losing bidders are hired as subcontractors.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

1 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

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Questions 82

Which of the following actions should the audit committee take to promote organizational independence for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Delegate final approval of the risk-based internal audit plan to the chief audit executive (CAE).

B.

Approve the annual budget and resource plan for the internal audit activity.

C.

Assist the CAE with hiring objective and competent internal audit staff.

D.

Encourage the CAE to communicate and coordinate with the external auditor.

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Questions 83

An internal audit charter should do which of the following?

Options:

A.

Outline the schedule of future audits.

B.

Define the scope of internal audit activities.

C.

Establish the size of the internal audit activity.

D.

Communicate the internal audit activity's goals.

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Questions 84

A new internal audit activity is creating its first charter. According to IIA guidance, which of the following objectives would be appropriate for inclusion in the charter?

Options:

A.

Continuously monitor the organization's overall risk activities in relation to its risk appetite.

B.

Evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the organization's governance activities.

C.

Oversee the establishment and administration of an effective risk management program.

D.

Assist management in implementing recommended control improvements.

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Questions 85

Which of the following are generally recognized as essential elements of a corporate social responsibility program?

Options:

A.

Human rights and the environment.

B.

Organizational governance and financial reporting.

C.

Fair operating practices and government regulation.

D.

Consumer issues and return on investment.

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Questions 86

According to the COSO enterprise risk management framework, which of the following best describes the activity that helps ensure risk responses are carried out effectively?

Options:

A.

Objective setting.

B.

Control activities.

C.

Information and communication.

D.

Event identification.

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Questions 87

Faced with a complex, highly technical construction audit engagement, the chief audit executive (CAE) considered complementing the current internal audit resources by engaging the services of a civil engineer.

Which of the following should the CAE consider in determining whether the engineer possesses the necessary skills to perform the engagement?

1. Professional certification, license, or other recognition of the engineer's competence in the relevant discipline.

2. Experience of the engineer in the type of work being considered.

3. Compensation or other incentives that the engineer may receive.

4. The extent of other ongoing services that the engineer may be performing for the organization.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

3 and 4 only

D.

1, 2, and 4 only

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Questions 88

The manager for an organization's accounts payable department resigned her post in that capacity. Three months later, she was recruited to the internal audit activity and has been working with the audit team for the last eight months. Which of the following assignments would the newly hired internal auditor be able to execute without any impairments to independence or objectivity?

Options:

A.

An operations audit of the accounts payable department.

B.

A consulting engagement related to a new accounts payable optimization initiative.

C.

A review of the employees' sports club finances, which are overseen by the chief audit executive.

D.

An assurance review for a sales program on which she previously provided consultation.

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Questions 89

An internal auditor uses a predefined macro provided in a popular spreadsheet application to verify the present value of the organization's investments. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action regarding the auditor's use of this functionality?

Options:

A.

The auditor should accept the calculations generated by the function, as any further work or documentation would be inefficient.

B.

The auditor should perform a manual recalculation of several results to validate and document the results.

C.

The auditor should review the programming of the macro before its use to ensure that it is appropriate for the required calculations.

D.

The auditor should tabulate the results in the spreadsheet to ensure the macro has generated the correct results for all calculations.

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Questions 90

Which of the following must be in existence as a precondition to developing an effective system of internal controls?

Options:

A.

A monitoring process.

B.

A risk assessment process.

C.

A strategic objective-setting process.

D.

An information and communication process.

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Exam Code: IIA-ACCA
Exam Name: ACCA CIA Challenge Exam
Last Update: Dec 21, 2024
Questions: 604

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