H12-811_V1.0 HCIA-Datacom V1.0 Exam Questions and Answers

Static IP addressing for servers in campus network planning is crucial for maintaining stable network access to server resources. Static IPs ensure that critical devices like servers have fixed addresses, allowing for predictable network access and reducing potential IP conflicts, which enhances network reliability. This practice is endorsed in Huawei's guidelines for effective campus network design and is considered a best practice for managing servers on a network​.

Detailed Explanation:Static MAC address entries are manually configured and stored in the switch's configuration file, making them persistent across reboots. These entries remain in the MAC address table after a restart, unlike dynamic entries, which are lost. (Reference: HCIA-Datacom Training Material, MAC Address Table Types)

Comprehensive Explanation: In RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol), G0/0/3 of SWB is an Alternate Port because it provides a redundant path to the root bridge, while G0/0/3 of SWA is a Designated Port, forwarding traffic away from the root bridge. Similarly, G0/0/2 of SWA is also a Designated Port because it forwards traffic to other segments of the network. Alternate Ports are used to provide backup paths, while Designated Ports are the forwarding ports on a given segment.

Comprehensive Explanation: When a switch port receives an untagged frame, the port adds the default VLAN ID, known as the PVID (Port VLAN ID), to the frame. This ensures that the frame is associated with a specific VLAN before it is forwarded. The PVID represents the VLAN to which the port belongs and is used when the port receives untagged traffic. This behavior is typical for access and hybrid ports in a VLAN-enabled switch configuration.

Detailed Explanation:The ACL (Access Control List) configuration only permits IP address 172.16.105.2. By applying this ACL to the Telnet server, only devices from this IP can establish a Telnet connection, while all others are denied access. (Reference: HCIA-Datacom Training Material, ACLs and Telnet Access Control)

Comprehensive Explanation: In RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol), the Alternate Port is the backup path to the root bridge. If the current root port fails, the Alternate Port immediately transitions to the forwarding state, providing a new path to the root bridge with minimal delay. This rapid transition is one of the key improvements of RSTP over the older STP protocol. Backup ports, on the other hand, provide redundancy on the same switch, and edge ports are used to connect directly to end devices.

The default route preference on Huawei VRP places Direct routes at the highest priority, followed by Static routes, then RIP, and finally OSPF. Direct routes are most trusted as they represent directly connected networks, while OSPF, being a dynamic protocol with more administrative distance, is prioritized lower by default​.

Dynamic Routing Protocol Purpose:A dynamic routing protocol's primary function is to dynamically generate and maintain routing tables by learning and sharing routing information between routers in real time. This ensures efficient path selection and adaptation to network changes​​.

Analysis of Options:

Option A: "Generate an IP address" is unrelated to routing protocols; IP address assignment is handled by DHCP or manual configuration.

Option B: "Manage routers" is inaccurate, as dynamic routing protocols do not manage router hardware or administrative tasks.

Option C: "Generate a routing table" is correct because routing protocols dynamically compute and update routing tables based on network topology changes.

Option D: "Control the status of router interfaces" refers to interface management, which is not a function of dynamic routing protocols.

Correct Answer:The main function of a dynamic routing protocol is C (Generate a routing table).

Detailed Explanation:Making a call on a landline telephone involves network communication. Though it uses a traditional telephone network (Public Switched Telephone Network, PSTN), the process of sending and receiving voice data through a wired system qualifies as network communication. The voice signals are converted into electrical signals, transmitted over the network, and then converted back into voice signals on the receiving end .

Detailed Explanation:With a /30 subnet mask, the valid IP range is 192.168.1.0 - 192.168.1.3:

192.168.1.3 is the broadcast address, so it can be a destination.

192.168.1.1 and 192.168.1.2 are host addresses.

255.255.255.255 is the limited broadcast address, which any device can use to reach all hosts on the local network.

(Reference: HCIA-Datacom Training Material, IP Addressing and Subnetting)

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Huawei's Versatile Routing Platform (VRP) supports various shortcut keys for efficient command-line navigation:

CTRL+Z → Moves the user back to User View from any configuration mode. ✅

Left Cursor Key (←) → Moves the cursor one character left. ✅

CTRL+C → Stops the execution of a command. ✅

Incorrect Option:

TAB → Does not display the latest command; instead, it auto-completes commands. ❌

✅ Reference: HCIA-Datacom Command Line Guide – CLI Keyboard Shortcuts

The MAC address table does not contain an entry for 5489-98EC-F011.

When a switch receives a frame with an unknown destination MAC address, it performs flooding.

Flooding sends the frame out of all interfaces except the one it was received on.

A (Incorrect): The switch does not discard unknown frames; it floods them.

B (Incorrect): No request is sent; flooding occurs instead.

D (Incorrect): ICMP is used for network-layer (IP) communication, not Ethernet switching.

Thus, the correct answer is C (Floods the frame on all interfaces except the incoming one).

Routers can learn routes from various sources:

Static routes: Manually configured routes.

Direct routes: Routes to networks directly connected to the router.

Summary routes: Aggregated routes summarizing multiple networks, often used in routing protocols.

Dynamic routes: Routes learned via routing protocols like OSPF, RIP, or BGP. These sources contribute to the router's routing table, enabling it to forward packets to known destinations​.

Detailed Explanation:To manage a router in a remote branch office, Telnet is a suitable option as it allows remote access over a network. Unlike a console connection, which requires physical access, Telnet enables remote management as long as the administrator has network connectivity to the router. FTP is used for file transfer, and DHCP is used for dynamic IP address allocation, not for management​​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a widely used AAA protocol for:

Authentication (verifying user credentials).

Authorization (determining access level).

Accounting (logging user activity).

It uses UDP (ports 1812/1813 or 1645/1646) and is common in enterprise networks.

✅ Reference: HCIA-Datacom Security Guide – AAA & RADIUS Overview

Comprehensive Explanation: In STP, the switch with the lowest Bridge ID is selected as the root bridge. The Bridge ID consists of the bridge priority and the MAC address. In this case, the switch with the bridge priority of 4096 has the lowest Bridge ID, making it the root bridge. If two switches have the same bridge priority, the MAC address is used to break the tie, with the lower MAC address winning.

TPID Definition:

TPID (Tag Protocol Identifier) is a field in the Ethernet frame header that indicates the presence of an 802.1Q VLAN tag.

IEEE 802.1Q defines the TPID value as 0x8100.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

0x9100: Used in some proprietary protocols but not IEEE standard.

0x8200 and 0x7200: Not valid TPID values.

References: HCIA-Datacom V1.0 Certification Guide, Chapter 4: VLAN Basics.

The BSSID (Basic Service Set Identifier) serves as the MAC address identifier for each Virtual Access Point (VAP) on an AP. Each BSSID uniquely identifies an SSID on a specific radio of an AP, allowing clients to associate with the correct access point in a multi-AP environment​.

The VRP platform does not support configuration through FTP. Configuration methods typically include using a console port, Telnet, or SSH, allowing for direct access to the device configuration. FTP is generally used for file transfer, not direct configuration, and therefore is not a supported method for configuring a router​.

Encapsulation is the process of adding headers and trailers to data at each layer of the OSI model as the data moves from the application layer to the physical layer. Decapsulation is the reverse process when data is received. These processes are critical in implementing network communication, ensuring the proper function of protocols, and assisting in locating faults during data transmission. They do not, however, shorten packet length​

NFV Overview:NFV replaces traditional hardware appliances with software-based solutions that can be deployed on virtualized infrastructure. This allows for flexible, cost-effective, and scalable network application deployment​​.

Command Overview:The Huawei Versatile Routing Platform (VRP) uses specific commands to manage file systems and view directory contents. While the dir command is used to list files in the current directory, the pwd command is not supported in VRP environments. Instead, the current working directory is displayed as part of the command prompt in VRP​​​.

Command Analysis:

dir Command:This command is supported and displays the list of files and subdirectories in the current directory. Example:

dir

Output includes filenames, sizes, and other metadata.

pwd Command:The pwd command is commonly used in UNIX/Linux systems to print the current working directory. However, this command is not available on VRP. VRP automatically shows the current directory in its prompt, making pwd unnecessary.

Correct Answer:Since only dir is valid, the statement is false. The correct answer is B (FALSE).

Comprehensive Explanation: The PVID (Port VLAN ID) is the VLAN to which untagged data frames are assigned on a hybrid port. In this configuration, the port hybrid untagged vlan 4 6 command indicates that VLANs 4 and 6 are untagged, and the PVID will be the lowest untagged VLAN, which is VLAN 4. Tagged frames for VLANs 2, 3, and 100 will be forwarded as tagged, but untagged traffic will belong to VLAN 4 by default.

Understanding the Network Diagram

Host A is in VLAN 10 with a gateway of 10.0.1.254.

Host B is in VLAN 20 with a gateway of 10.0.2.254.

The router (RTA) has two sub-interfaces:

G0/0/1.1 (10.0.1.254/24) for VLAN 10

G0/0/1.2 (10.0.2.254/24) for VLAN 20

The switch (SWA) is using VLAN trunking to forward packets to the router, requiring 802.1Q encapsulation.

One-Armed Routing (Router-on-a-Stick) is being used, meaning a single physical interface (G0/0/1) handles multiple VLANs using sub-interfaces.

Analyzing the Answer Choices

Option A (dot1q termination vid 20) → Incorrect

This command would be configured on G0/0/1.2, not G0/0/1.1.

Option B (dot1q termination vid 30) → Incorrect

VLAN 30 is not part of this topology.

Option C (dot1q termination vid 10) → Correct

Since G0/0/1.1 corresponds to VLAN 10, the correct command is dot1q termination vid 10.

Option D (dot1q termination vid 1) → Incorrect

VLAN 1 is usually the default VLAN, which is not relevant here.

Thus, the correct answer is C (dot1q termination vid 10).

Wireless networks commonly use Access Controllers (ACs) and Access Points (APs) to manage user connectivity.

Option A (Incorrect): Fat APs operate independently and do not require an AC to function. Instead, Fit APs require ACs to manage them centrally.

Option B (Correct): An AC (Access Controller) is usually deployed at the aggregation layer of a network. It provides centralized control over Fit APs, ensuring high-speed, secure, and reliable WLAN services. This is the standard design in enterprise WLAN architectures.

Option C (Incorrect): Fit APs do not handle authentication and forwarding on their own. Instead, they rely on an AC for these functions.

Option D (Incorrect): Many wireless devices (including APs and ACs) have wired interfaces for uplink connectivity to switches or other network devices.

Thus, the correct answer is B. An AC is usually deployed at the aggregation layer of a network to provide high-speed, secure, and reliable WLAN services.

In Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), Topology Change (TC) BPDUs are used to notify switches about network topology changes.

The Root Bridge generates BPDUs with TC bits set, which are forwarded through the network.

Non-root switches forward these BPDUs through their Designated Ports.

Option A (Incorrect - Root Port): The Root Port receives BPDUs from the Root Bridge but does not forward them.

Option B (Correct - Designated Port): Designated ports are responsible for forwarding BPDUs down the tree towards other switches.

Option C (Incorrect - Backup Port): Backup ports are blocking and do not forward BPDUs.

Option D (Incorrect - Alternate Port): Alternate ports are in a blocking state and do not forward BPDUs.

Thus, the correct answer is B.

Comprehensive Explanation: It is possible for the load balancing modes at both ends of an Eth-Trunk (Ethernet Trunk) to be different, as long as the devices at both ends support the different modes. Load balancing modes control how traffic is distributed across multiple links in the trunk. Although the modes may differ, they must be compatible in terms of ensuring that traffic is appropriately handled across the multiple physical interfaces bundled in the trunk.

Detailed Explanation:The default preference of static routes on Huawei routers is 0. This means that if a static route is present, it will always take precedence over routes with higher preferences, such as dynamically learned routes, unless a lower preference is manually assigned​​.

The telnetlib module in Python provides functions to interact with Telnet servers, allowing Python scripts to automate Telnet sessions. This module is widely used in network automation and scripting tasks, where Telnet is used to access and manage network devices remotely​.

Detailed Explanation:While a switch will typically forward a unicast frame based on its MAC address table, certain scenarios like port security or VLAN restrictions may prevent the frame from being forwarded even if a MAC entry exists. (Reference: HCIA-Datacom Training Material, MAC Address Table and Frame Forwarding)

Given correct configuration, hosts within the same subnet should be able to communicate, so the host at 10.0.12.1 can ping the host at 10.0.12.2. This scenario assumes correct interconnectivity and absence of firewall or ACL rules that would block the communication​.

To determine which statement is incorrect, we need to analyze the ACL configuration on Router A and understand how it filters outbound traffic to the Internet. Let's break down the configuration step by step, referencing HCIA Datacom principles for ACL processing and traffic filtering.

1. Understanding the ACL Configuration

The configuration on Router A is as follows:

text

WrapCopy

acl number 2000

rule 5 deny source 200.0.12.0 0.0.0.7

rule 10 permit source 200.0.12.0 0.0.0.15

#

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1

traffic-filter outbound acl 2000

#

ACL Number 2000: This is a basic ACL used to filter traffic based on source IP addresses.

Rule 5: deny source 200.0.12.0 0.0.0.7

The wildcard mask 0.0.0.7 translates to a subnet mask of /29 (255.255.255.248).

The IP range for 200.0.12.0 0.0.0.7 is calculated as:

Network address: 200.0.12.0

Broadcast address: 200.0.12.7

Usable host addresses: 200.0.12.1 to 200.0.12.6 (6 usable addresses in a /29 subnet).

Therefore, this rule denies traffic from any source IP in the range 200.0.12.1–200.0.12.6.

Rule 10: permit source 200.0.12.0 0.0.0.15

The wildcard mask 0.0.0.15 translates to a subnet mask of /28 (255.255.255.240).

The IP range for 200.0.12.0 0.0.0.15 is:

Network address: 200.0.12.0

Broadcast address: 200.0.12.15

Usable host addresses: 200.0.12.1 to 200.0.12.14 (14 usable addresses in a /28 subnet).

Therefore, this rule permits traffic from any source IP in the range 200.0.12.1–200.0.12.14.

Interface Configuration: The ACL 2000 is applied outbound on interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1, meaning it filters traffic leaving Router A toward the Internet.

2. ACL Processing Logic (HCIA Datacom Reference)

According to HCIA Datacom documentation (e.g., Huawei ACL fundamentals), ACLs are processed in sequential order, and the first matching rule determines the action (permit or deny). If no rule matches, the implicit deny rule at the end of the ACL blocks the traffic. In this case:

Rule 5 denies traffic from 200.0.12.1–200.0.12.6.

Rule 10 permits traffic from 200.0.12.1–200.0.12.14.

Since Rule 5 is processed before Rule 10, any IP in the overlap (i.e., 200.0.12.1–200.0.12.6) will be denied by Rule 5, even though Rule 10 would permit it.

IPs outside 200.0.12.1–200.0.12.6 but within 200.0.12.1–200.0.12.14 are permitted by Rule 10.

Any IP not matching Rule 5 or Rule 10 is implicitly denied (but no such IPs are listed in the options).

3. Evaluating Each Option

Now, let’s check each host IP address against the ACL rules to determine if they can access the Internet:

A. The host with the source IP address 200.0.12.6 cannot access the Internet.

200.0.12.6 falls within the range 200.0.12.1–200.0.12.6, which is denied by Rule 5.

Therefore, this statement is correct (the host cannot access the Internet).

B. The host with the source IP address 200.0.12.8 cannot access the Internet.

200.0.12.8 does not fall within the range 200.0.12.1–200.0.12.6 (denied by Rule 5).

It does fall within the range 200.0.12.1–200.0.12.14 (permitted by Rule 10).

Therefore, 200.0.12.8 is permitted to access the Internet, making this statement incorrect.

C. The host with the source IP address 200.0.12.2 cannot access the Internet.

200.0.12.2 falls within the range 200.0.12.1–200.0.12.6, which is denied by Rule 5.

Therefore, this statement is correct (the host cannot access the Internet).

D. The host with the source IP address 200.0.12.4 cannot access the Internet.

200.0.12.4 falls within the range 200.0.12.1–200.0.12.6, which is denied by Rule 5.

Therefore, this statement is correct (the host cannot access the Internet).

4. Conclusion

The only incorrect statement is B, as the host with the source IP address 200.0.12.8 can access the Internet because it is permitted by Rule 10 and not denied by Rule 5.

5. HCIA Datacom References

This analysis aligns with the HCIA Datacom curriculum, specifically:

ACL Fundamentals: Huawei’s documentation on basic ACLs (e.g., ACL 2000–2999 for IPv4) and their rule processing order (first match wins).

Traffic Filtering: Outbound ACL application on interfaces, as described in Huawei router configuration guides.

Wildcard Mask Calculation: Standard IP addressing and subnetting principles for determining IP ranges (e.g., /29 and /28 subnets).

These principles are detailed in the HCIA Datacom V1.0 training materials, particularly in the sections on ACL configuration, IP addressing, and interface-based traffic control.

CAPWAP (Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points) is a protocol that enables centralized control of Fit APs by an AC (Access Controller).

Option A (Incorrect): CAPWAP tunnels only control traffic, while data traffic can be sent via direct forwarding or tunneled forwarding.

Option B (Incorrect): A Fit AP can discover an AC via multiple methods, including broadcast, static configuration, or DHCP Option 43.

Option C (Correct): APs encapsulate user data into CAPWAP packets and send them to the AC for further processing.

Option D (Incorrect): CAPWAP is based on UDP, not TCP, for better efficiency and lower latency.

Thus, the correct answer is C.

OSPFv1 (B): Was an experimental version, not widely used.

OSPFv2 (C): Used for IPv4 networks, does not support IPv6.

OSPFv3 (D): Specifically designed for IPv6 networks and includes additional features like security and address scope handling.

OSPFv4 (A): This version does not exist.

Thus, the correct answer is D (OSPFv3).

Static vs. Dynamic Routing:

Static routing: Routes manually configured by the network engineer. These do not adapt dynamically to network changes​​.

Direct routing: Routes automatically learned when a router is directly connected to a network. This is not a dynamic routing protocol​.

Dynamic Routing Protocols:

OSPF (Open Shortest Path First): A dynamic Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) that calculates the best route based on link state information​.

BGP (Border Gateway Protocol): A dynamic Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) used for routing between autonomous systems​​.

Correct Answers:The dynamic routing protocols are C (OSPF) and D (BGP).

ICMP and NAPT:ICMP packets do not have port numbers, but NAPT (Network Address and Port Translation) can still manage ICMP traffic by matching identifiers in the ICMP header. This allows NAPT to handle ICMP messages properly​​.

Correct Answer:FALSE. ICMP packets can be handled by NAPT.

The configuration provided is for a trunk port, which can carry multiple VLANs.

The command port trunk allow-pass vlan 10 20 30 40 allows tagged traffic from VLANs 10, 20, 30, and 40.

The command port trunk pvid vlan 10 sets the PVID (Port VLAN ID) to VLAN 10.

Any untagged frames received on this port will be assigned to VLAN 10, as per the PVID setting.

Option A (Correct): Since the PVID is VLAN 10, untagged frames are assigned to VLAN 10.

Options B, C, and D (Incorrect): VLANs 20, 30, and 40 are allowed, but untagged frames are not assigned to them.

Thus, the correct answer is A.

In the ACL (Access Control List) configuration:

Rule 5: Permits traffic from 192.168.1.1.

Rule 10: Denies traffic from 192.168.1.1.

Since ACLs are processed in sequential order, the first matching rule is applied.

Option A (Incorrect): The first rule (permit) is matched before the deny rule.

Option B (Incorrect): 192.168.1.254 is not listed in the ACL, so it does not match any rule.

Option C (Correct): 192.168.1.1 matches the first permit rule (Rule 5), so it is allowed.

Option D (Incorrect): 192.168.1.254 is not mentioned in the ACL rules, so it does not match the permit rule.

Thus, the correct answer is C.

To form an EUI-64 address, the MAC address is split and FFFE is inserted in the middle, making the EUI-64 format 00E0-FCEF-FFFE-0FEC. Additionally, the 7th bit of the first byte is flipped to form the Modified EUI-64 address used in IPv6 for Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC)​.

B (Correct) - HTTP: Uses TCP port 80 for web traffic.

C (Correct) - FTP: Uses TCP ports 20/21 for file transfer.

A (Incorrect) - TFTP: Uses UDP port 69, not TCP.

D (Incorrect) - Ping: Uses ICMP, which is neither TCP nor UDP.

Thus, the correct answers are B and C.

OSPF Network Types Overview:OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) supports different network types based on the underlying physical or logical topology:

A. Broadcast: OSPF assumes a fully meshed network, like Ethernet. DR/BDR elections occur.

B. Point-to-Point: A simple two-node network where no DR/BDR elections occur.

C. NBMA: OSPF operates over WAN technologies like Frame Relay. DR/BDR elections occur.

D. Point-to-Multipoint: OSPF operates on logically defined topologies where broadcast or multicast is not supported.

OSPF Flexibility:OSPF accommodates all these network types to ensure compatibility with a variety of link-layer technologies.

References: HCIA-Datacom V1.0 Certification Guide, Chapter 6: OSPF Fundamentals.

With a subnet mask of /25, the IP range for this subnet would be 192.168.1.0 to 192.168.1.127. Here, 192.168.1.127 is the last usable address in the subnet, making it a valid host address rather than a network or broadcast address. This address falls within the range of available host addresses for that subnet​.

The wildcard mask 0.0.254.255 means:

The first and third octets are checked exactly.

The second and fourth octets can vary.

This results in a match for IPs in the range 10.0.2.0 - 10.0.2.255.

Only option D (10.0.2.1) falls within this range.

Thus, the correct answer is D (10.0.2.1).

Detailed Explanation:The command forward-mode direct-forward is used to configure the AC to enable direct forwarding, meaning that the AP will forward user data packets directly to the network without tunneling them through the AC, improving efficiency by reducing the load on the AC​.

Statement A (False): Any router can function as an ASBR, not just ABRs. An ASBR is any router that connects OSPF to an external network, regardless of area.

Statement B (True): Area 0 is the OSPF backbone area, and all other areas must connect to it.

Statement C (True): Area partitioning reduces LSDB size by limiting the scope of LSAs within an area.

Statement D (True): Routers in the same area have the same LSDB, ensuring consistency in link-state information.

Thus, the correct answer is A (False statement).

Comprehensive Explanation: In this configuration, LSW1 and LSW2 have trunk links that allow VLAN 10 to pass between them. When a ping is sent from R1, the frame is tagged with VLAN 10 on LSW2, and this tagged frame is forwarded to LSW1. Since the trunk allows VLAN 10, the tagged data frame is successfully received and processed by LSW1.

Device Interconnection Requirements:

Device interconnection (such as point-to-point links) requires only two IP addresses: one for each device.

A subnet mask of /30 (255.255.255.252) provides four total addresses (2 usable, 1 network, 1 broadcast).

Efficiency:

Using a /30 subnet avoids wasting IP addresses, making it ideal for point-to-point links.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B (32): /32 is used for single-host IP addresses, not links.

C (24): /24 is excessive for point-to-point links, providing 254 usable addresses.

D (16): /16 provides 65,534 addresses, which is highly inefficient.

References: HCIA-Datacom V1.0 Certification Guide, Chapter 3: IP Addressing.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The TCP/IP model consists of four layers:

Application Layer (Includes HTTP, FTP, DNS, etc.)

Transport Layer (Includes TCP, UDP)

Internet Layer (Same as OSI Network Layer)

Network Access Layer (Same as OSI Data Link & Physical Layers)

However, the OSI model has seven layers, which include:

Presentation Layer (Handles data translation, encryption, compression)

Session Layer (Manages sessions between applications)

Since the Presentation Layer and Session Layer are part of OSI and not TCP/IP, they do not exist in the TCP/IP model.

✅ Reference: HCIA-Datacom Network Principles Guide – TCP/IP Model vs. OSI Model

Comprehensive Explanation: The user-interface maximum-vty command is used on Huawei devices to configure the maximum number of simultaneous VTY (Virtual Terminal Line) users who can log in via Telnet. By limiting the number of VTY sessions, the administrator can control how many users are able to access the device at the same time, preventing excessive connections that may overwhelm the device or reduce security.

An IPv4 packet consists of a header and a payload:

Total Length=Header Length+Payload Length\text{Total Length} = \text{Header Length} + \text{Payload Length}Total Length=Header Length+Payload Length

Given:

IPv4 header length = 20B

Total packet length = 1500B

Payload=1500B−20B=1480B\text{Payload} = 1500B - 20B = 1480BPayload=1500B−20B=1480B

Option A (Incorrect): 1520B is incorrect because it exceeds the total packet length.

Option B (Incorrect): 20B is just the header, not the payload.

Option C (Incorrect): 1500B includes the header, not just the payload.

Option D (Correct): 1480B is the correct payload size.

Thus, the correct answer is D (1480B).

A (Correct): Stacking allows inter-chassis Ethernet Trunks to be created, improving redundancy and bandwidth.

B (Correct): Multiple switches act as a single logical device, simplifying network management.

C (Correct): Stacking increases available ports, allowing expansion without adding separate devices.

D (Correct): By enabling redundancy, stacking and CSS help prevent single points of failure in the network.

Thus, the correct answers are A, B, C, and D.

Detailed Explanation:Wi-Fi 6 refers to the IEEE 802.11ax standard, which improves the efficiency, capacity, and performance of wireless networks, especially in dense environments​.

Step 1: Understanding MAC Address Table Lookup

When Host A sends a frame with MAC-B as the destination, SWA checks its MAC address table to determine the correct port to forward the frame.

According to the MAC table, MAC-B is associated with interface G0/0/2.

Step 2: Forwarding Behavior

Since SWA knows the destination MAC address and its associated interface, it will forward the frame only through G0/0/2.

Step 3: Analyzing the Answer Choices

Option A (Correct - Forwards only through G0/0/2): ✅

SWA correctly forwards the frame to G0/0/2, where HostB is connected.

Option B (Incorrect - Forwards through G0/0/3): ❌

MAC-B is not associated with G0/0/3, so the switch will not forward the frame there.

Option C (Incorrect - Floods the frame): ❌

Flooding occurs only when the MAC address is unknown, but in this case, MAC-B is known.

Option D (Incorrect - Discards the frame): ❌

The switch only discards frames if there’s a security violation or filtering rule, which is not mentioned here.

Error Analysis:The error message indicates that the command entered is not recognized by the device. This typically occurs when the syntax is incorrect or the first keyword of the command is unrecognized. The system identifies the problem location ('A' position), which points to the initial part of the command.

Analysis of Options:

Option A: "The entered parameter is not specified" refers to cases where a valid command is incomplete due to missing parameters, not an unrecognized command. This is unrelated to the error displayed.

Option B: "The entered command is incomplete" applies when additional parameters are needed to complete the command. However, the system explicitly states "unrecognized command," ruling this out.

Option C: "The parameter type is incorrect" refers to an error where a parameter is of the wrong type (e.g., string instead of integer). This is not related to keyword recognition.

Option D: "No keyword is found" directly aligns with the error message, as the system cannot recognize the first keyword of the command, making it the correct answer​​.

Comprehensive Explanation: SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) consists of several key components:

Management Information Base (MIB): A database containing the network management data.

Managed object: The individual objects (such as interfaces or devices) that SNMP manages.

Agent process: The software running on the managed device that reports data to the NMS.

NMS (Network Management System): The centralized system that collects data from managed devices using SNMP.

All these components work together to monitor, configure, and manage network devices.

The Full state in OSPF means that all routers have completed LSDB synchronization and formed an adjacency.

If LSDB synchronization is incomplete, the router remains in Loading or Exchange state.

Only after the Database Description (DD) packets, Link-State Requests (LSR), and Link-State Updates (LSU) are exchanged, the router enters the Full state.

Thus, the correct answer is A (TRUE).

Advanced ACLs (3000-3999) allow filtering based on:

Source and Destination IPs

Protocol Number (C - Correct)

Destination Port Number (B - Correct)

Time-range (D - Correct)

A (Incorrect): ACLs do not filter based on the source interface, but rather on IPs, ports, and protocols.

Thus, the correct answer is A (Source Interface).

Comprehensive Explanation: In Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), the Message Age in the BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit) sent by the root bridge is set to 0. As BPDUs are forwarded by non-root switches, the Message Age is incremented. This timer is used to ensure that outdated information is not propagated indefinitely through the network. If the Message Age reaches a configured maximum value, the BPDU is discarded, and the network topology is recalculated.

The root path cost is calculated by summing the costs of each port on the path from the root bridge to the receiving port. In this case, assuming each link has a cost of 200, the total cost to reach the root from the indicated port would be 600, reflecting three hops from the root bridge​.

On Huawei VRP (Versatile Routing Platform), the command history feature allows administrators to recall previously executed commands. The Upper cursor key (↑ arrow key) can be used to navigate through the command history and re-execute previously entered commands.

Ctrl+P is not a valid shortcut for recalling command history.

Ctrl+U is typically used to delete an entire line of input in command-line interfaces, not to recall history.

Left cursor key (←) is used for moving the cursor within a command line but does not invoke command history.

Thus, the correct answer is B. Upper cursor key (↑ arrow key).

VLAN Assignment Overview:VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) assignment is a critical step in campus network planning. It involves logically segmenting a network to improve manageability, security, and performance. Huawei recommends various approaches based on specific needs.

Analysis of Options:

Option A: "VLAN assignment by service type"This method groups devices based on the type of service they require (e.g., voice, video, data). It helps in isolating traffic for different service types, improving QoS and security. This is a common practice in network planning​​.

Option B: "VLAN assignment by logical area"Logical area-based assignment groups devices based on their logical function in the network (e.g., core, access, distribution). It ensures proper segmentation and alignment with network topology​.

Option C: "VLAN assignment by geographic area"Assigning VLANs based on geographic areas (e.g., floors in a building, departments) helps localize traffic within a region, reducing unnecessary cross-network traffic​​.

Option D: "VLAN assignment by personnel structure"While this option suggests assigning VLANs based on organizational structure (e.g., employees, managers), it is not a typical practice in VLAN assignment. It lacks scalability and alignment with network topology, making it an inefficient approach​.

Correct Answers:The valid VLAN assignment methods in campus network planning are:

A. By service type

B. By logical area

C. By geographic area

Huawei ACLs operate at different layers:

Basic ACL (Correct): Matches Layer 3 IP source addresses.

Advanced ACL (Correct): Matches Layer 3 (IP, TCP, UDP) and Layer 4 information.

User ACL (Correct): Used in QoS policies to filter based on IP addresses.

Layer 2 ACL (Incorrect): Works at Layer 2 (Ethernet frames) and cannot match Layer 3 (network layer) information such as IP addresses.

Thus, the correct answer is D.

Detailed Explanation:An MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) header includes the following fields:

Label: Identifies the MPLS path.

TTL (Time to Live): Limits the lifetime of the MPLS packet.

EXP (Experimental): Used for QoS marking. The Tos (Type of Service) field is part of the IP header, not MPLS.

(Reference: HCIA-Datacom Training Material, MPLS Header Fields)

Comprehensive Explanation: To remove the Eth-Trunk interface, you can simply use the undo interface Eth-Trunk 1 command. This command deletes the entire Eth-Trunk interface from the switch configuration. The other commands involve additional steps to unbind physical interfaces from the Eth-Trunk, but these steps are unnecessary if you are deleting the Eth-Trunk interface entirely.

To ensure communication between Host A and Host B, we need to analyze the network topology, VLAN configuration, and the role of SWC as an intermediate switch. Let’s break it down step by step, based on VLAN and trunking principles as outlined in HCIA Datacom documentation:

Understanding the Current Network Configuration:

Host A and Host B: Both are connected to SWA and SWB, respectively, via access ports assigned to VLAN 2. Access ports carry untagged traffic for a single VLAN (in this case, VLAN 2), so Host A and Host B are part of VLAN 2.

SWA and SWB Trunk Interfaces: G0/0/1 on SWA and G0/0/2 on SWB are configured as trunk interfaces allowing all VLANs. Trunk ports carry tagged traffic for multiple VLANs (including VLAN 2 in this case) and are used to interconnect switches, enabling VLAN traffic to pass between them. Since these trunk ports allow all VLANs, VLAN 2 traffic can traverse between SWA and SWB.

SWC: SWC is the intermediate switch connecting SWA and SWB via its G0/0/1 (connected to SWA’s G0/0/1) and G0/0/2 (connected to SWB’s G0/0/2). However, the diagram and question do not specify SWC’s current VLAN or port configurations. By default, if no VLAN or trunk configuration exists on SWC, VLAN 2 traffic cannot pass through SWC, preventing communication between Host A and Host B.

Requirements for Communication Between Host A and Host B:

For Host A and Host B (both in VLAN 2) to communicate across the network, VLAN 2 traffic must be able to traverse SWC. This requires:

VLAN 2 to be created on SWC so that the switch recognizes and processes traffic for that VLAN.

The interfaces on SWC (G0/0/1 and G0/0/2) connecting to SWA and SWB must be configured as trunk ports to carry tagged VLAN 2 traffic, matching the trunk configuration on SWA’s G0/0/1 and SWB’s G0/0/2.

Trunk ports are necessary because they can carry traffic for multiple VLANs (tagged) and are typically used between switches to maintain VLAN consistency across the network.

Evaluating Each Option:

A. Create VLAN 2 on SWC.

Creating VLAN 2 on SWC is necessary, but it alone is insufficient. Without configuring the ports (G0/0/1 and G0/0/2) as trunk interfaces allowing VLAN 2, the VLAN traffic cannot pass through SWC. This option is incomplete and incorrect.

B. Configure G0/0/1 on SWC as a trunk interface that allows packets from VLAN 2 to pass through.

Configuring G0/0/1 as a trunk interface allowing VLAN 2 is part of the solution, but it only addresses the connection to SWA. G0/0/2 (connected to SWB) also needs to be configured as a trunk interface allowing VLAN 2 for bidirectional communication between Host A and Host B. This option is incomplete and incorrect.

C. Create VLAN 2 on SWC, and configure G0/0/1 and G0/0/2 as trunk interfaces that allow packets from VLAN 2 to pass through.

This option addresses all requirements:

Creating VLAN 2 on SWC ensures the switch recognizes VLAN 2 traffic.

Configuring both G0/0/1 and G0/0/2 as trunk interfaces allowing VLAN 2 ensures that tagged VLAN 2 traffic can pass between SWA and SWB through SWC, enabling communication between Host A and Host B.

This is the complete and correct solution, aligning with VLAN and trunking principles in HCIA Datacom.

D. On SWC, configure G0/0/1 as a trunk interface that allows packets from VLAN 2 to pass through, configure G0/0/2 as an access interface, and set the PVID to 2.

Configuring G0/0/1 as a trunk interface allowing VLAN 2 is correct for the connection to SWA. However, configuring G0/0/2 as an access interface with PVID 2 (Port VLAN ID) is incorrect for this scenario:

Access ports carry untagged traffic for a single VLAN and are typically used for end devices, not for interconnecting switches. Since SWB’s G0/0/2 is a trunk interface allowing all VLANs, G0/0/2 on SWC must also be a trunk interface to match and carry VLAN 2 traffic.

Using an access port on G0/0/2 would prevent VLAN 2 traffic from passing correctly, as it would expect untagged traffic only for VLAN 2, which conflicts with SWB’s trunk configuration.

This option is incorrect because it mixes access and trunk port types inappropriately for inter-switch links.

Conclusion:

To ensure communication between Host A and Host B (both in VLAN 2), SWC must:

Create VLAN 2.

Configure G0/0/1 and G0/0/2 as trunk interfaces allowing VLAN 2 traffic.

Option C fulfills these requirements, making it the correct answer.

Answer: C

References from HCIA Datacom Documents:

HCIA Datacom V3.0, Chapter 4: VLAN Technologies – Access and Trunk Port Configurations

HCIA Datacom V3.0, Chapter 4: VLAN Trunking and Inter-VLAN Routing – Configuring Trunk Ports for VLAN Traffic

Huawei VLAN Configuration Guide (HCIA Datacom Certification Material) – VLAN Creation and Port Link Types

Detailed Explanation:Small campus networks are characterized by simple architecture, limited user counts, and straightforward network requirements. Wide coverage is typically associated with larger campus or enterprise networks. (Reference: HCIA-Datacom Training Material, Campus Network Characteristics)

The IPv4 header length is variable and is determined by the Header Length (IHL) field in the IPv4 header.

Minimum header size: 20 bytes (5 x 4B) → No options field.

Maximum header size: 60 bytes (15 x 4B) → Includes maximum options.

Option A (Incorrect - 64B): The maximum possible length of an IPv4 header is 60B, so 64B is not possible.

Option B (Correct - 20B): This is the standard IPv4 header size without options.

Option C (Correct - 60B): This is the maximum IPv4 header size with options.

Option D (Correct - 32B): This is a possible IPv4 header size with some options.

Thus, the correct answer is A (64B).

Comprehensive Explanation: In Telnet sessions, different privilege levels determine what actions a user is allowed to perform. If users are not able to configure the IP address, it is likely that their privilege level is set incorrectly. The administrator must ensure that the Telnet users are assigned the correct privilege level (typically level 15 for full administrative rights) to allow configuration changes, including IP address modifications.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

802.11n operates on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands (Dual-band support). ✅

802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6) supports 6 GHz (but 802.11n does not). ❌

✅ Reference: HCIA-Datacom Wireless Guide – 802.11 Standards

Detailed Explanation:Using DHCP provides several advantages:

It helps prevent IP address conflicts because the DHCP server dynamically assigns IP addresses, ensuring each device gets a unique one.

IP addresses can be reused by setting lease times, allowing the DHCP server to recycle addresses from devices that no longer need them.

Centralized configuration management is also possible. If network configuration details such as the DNS server change, the administrator can update these settings on the DHCP server, and all DHCP clients will automatically receive the new information​​.

The PVID (Port VLAN ID) specifies the default VLAN for untagged frames.

The command port trunk pvid vlan 10 means that VLAN 10 is the default VLAN.

When untagged frames arrive, they are assigned to VLAN 10.

When the switch forwards frames from VLAN 10, it removes the VLAN tag.

VLANs 20, 30, and 40 remain tagged.

Thus, the correct answer is D (VLAN 10).

The tracert (Trace Route) command is a network diagnostic tool used to trace the path that packets take from the source device to the destination.

It works by sending ICMP Echo Requests (or UDP packets) with increasing TTL (Time-To-Live) values and recording responses from each hop along the way.

This helps network administrators identify routing issues, network delays, and connectivity problems in the forwarding path.

The command is commonly used in Huawei VRP to diagnose network latency or packet loss between different nodes.

Thus, the correct answer is A (TRUE).

In Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), the Port ID consists of:

8-bit Port Priority

8-bit Port Number

This results in a total length of 16 bits.

B, C, and D are incorrect since they do not represent the full length of the Port ID.

Thus, the correct answer is A (16 bits).

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

vlan batch 10 20 → Creates 2 VLANs (10 and 20). ✅

vlan batch 10 to 20 → Creates VLANs 10 to 20 (11 VLANs total). ✅

✅ Reference: HCIA-Datacom VLAN Configuration Guide

Detailed Explanation:Access ports are configured for a single VLAN and thus send untagged frames by default. Trunk ports, conversely, handle traffic for multiple VLANs, tagging each frame with a VLAN ID. (Reference: HCIA-Datacom Training Material, Switch Port Types and VLAN Tagging)

Detailed Explanation:

Dynamic routing protocols, such as OSPF and RIP, automatically discover and generate routes, adjusting when network topology changes occur. This helps in reducing the manual configuration required by static routes and ensures that the network adapts efficiently to changes such as link failures or the addition of new routes.

Detailed Explanation:In Huawei VRP, the command-privilege command is used to modify the privilege level of a specific command. In this case, the command adjusts the privilege level of the save command within the user view to level 3, which is higher than the default level. This command does not modify the user's privilege level itself but changes the required privilege level to use the save command in the user view .

Comprehensive Explanation: An ACL (Access Control List) is used to define rules for permitting or denying packets based on criteria such as IP addresses, protocols, or ports. However, the ACL only takes effect when it is applied to a service module, such as an interface or a firewall rule. This ensures that traffic is filtered according to the ACL rules as it passes through the device. Without being applied, the ACL rules are inactive and do not influence traffic.

To enable an FTP server on a Huawei router, the following commands are required:

Create the FTP user and set the allowed service:

local-user huawei service-type ftp

Set the FTP user's password:

local-user huawei password cipher huawei

Specify the root directory for FTP access:

local-user huawei ftp-directory flash:/dhcp/

Enable the FTP server function:

ftp server enable

Since all four commands are required, the correct answers are A, B, C, and D.

Detailed Explanation:The protocol number for TCP in the IPv4 header is 6. Since Telnet uses TCP as its transport layer protocol, the protocol field in the IPv4 header will contain the value 6​​.