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CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to understand management's approach to organizational risk?

Options:

A.

Organizational structure and job descriptions

B.

Risk appetite and risk tolerance

C.

Industry best practices for risk management

D.

Prior year's risk assessment results

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Questions 5

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization

D.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

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Questions 6

When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a core business process, which of the following should be done FIRST to ensure continuity of operations?

Options:

A.

Define metrics for restoring availability.

B.

Identify conditions that may cause disruptions.

C.

Review incident response procedures.

D.

Evaluate the probability of risk events.

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Questions 7

Which of the following is the BEST method to maintain a common view of IT risk within an organization?

Options:

A.

Collecting data for IT risk assessment

B.

Establishing and communicating the IT risk profile

C.

Utilizing a balanced scorecard

D.

Performing and publishing an IT risk analysis

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Questions 8

Following an acquisition, the acquiring company's risk practitioner has been asked to update the organization's IT risk profile What is the MOST important information to review from the acquired company to facilitate this task?

Options:

A.

Internal and external audit reports

B.

Risk disclosures in financial statements

C.

Risk assessment and risk register

D.

Business objectives and strategies

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Questions 9

An organization is considering outsourcing user administration controls tor a critical system. The potential vendor has offered to perform quarterly sett-audits of its controls instead of having annual independent audits. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to me risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The controls may not be properly tested

B.

The vendor will not ensure against control failure

C.

The vendor will not achieve best practices

D.

Lack of a risk-based approach to access control

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Questions 10

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of identifying appropriate risk owners?

Options:

A.

Accountability is established for risk treatment decisions

B.

Stakeholders are consulted about risk treatment options

C.

Risk owners are informed of risk treatment options

D.

Responsibility is established for risk treatment decisions.

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Questions 11

Which of the following issues found during the review of a newly created disaster recovery plan (DRP) should be of MOST concern?

Options:

A.

Some critical business applications are not included in the plan

B.

Several recovery activities will be outsourced

C.

The plan is not based on an internationally recognized framework

D.

The chief information security officer (CISO) has not approved the plan

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Questions 12

A risk practitioner has identified that the agreed recovery time objective (RTO) with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is longer than the business expectation. Which ot the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan.

B.

Document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management.

C.

Include a right to audit clause in the service provider contract.

D.

Advise the risk owner to accept the risk.

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Questions 13

Which of the following is the MOST important objective from a cost perspective for considering aggregated risk responses in an organization?

Options:

A.

Prioritize risk response options

B.

Reduce likelihood.

C.

Address more than one risk response

D.

Reduce impact

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Questions 14

An information security audit identified a risk resulting from the failure of an automated control Who is responsible for ensuring the risk register is updated accordingly?

Options:

A.

The risk practitioner

B.

The risk owner

C.

The control owner

D.

The audit manager

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Questions 15

Which of the following resources is MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when updating the likelihood rating in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk control assessment

B.

Audit reports with risk ratings

C.

Penetration test results

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 16

Which of the following is the BEST way to help ensure risk will be managed properly after a business process has been re-engineered?

Options:

A.

Reassessing control effectiveness of the process

B.

Conducting a post-implementation review to determine lessons learned

C.

Reporting key performance indicators (KPIs) for core processes

D.

Establishing escalation procedures for anomaly events

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Questions 17

A recent vulnerability assessment of a web-facing application revealed several weaknesses. Which of the following should be done NEXT to determine the risk exposure?

Options:

A.

Code review

B.

Penetration test

C.

Gap assessment

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 18

Which of the following BEST reduces the risk associated with the theft of a laptop containing sensitive information?

Options:

A.

Cable lock

B.

Data encryption

C.

Periodic backup

D.

Biometrics access control

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Questions 19

Which of the following is MOST important for maintaining the effectiveness of an IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Removing entries from the register after the risk has been treated

B.

Recording and tracking the status of risk response plans within the register

C.

Communicating the register to key stakeholders

D.

Performing regular reviews and updates to the register

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Questions 20

Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRls) should be revised?

Options:

A.

A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds

B.

An Increase In the number of risk threshold exceptions

C.

An increase in the number of change events pending management review

D.

A decrease In the number of key performance indicators (KPls)

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Questions 21

The objective of aligning mitigating controls to risk appetite is to ensure that:

Options:

A.

exposures are reduced to the fullest extent

B.

exposures are reduced only for critical business systems

C.

insurance costs are minimized

D.

the cost of controls does not exceed the expected loss.

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Questions 22

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners?

Options:

A.

Cost and benefit

B.

Security and availability

C.

Maintainability and reliability

D.

Performance and productivity

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Questions 23

A highly regulated enterprise is developing a new risk management plan to specifically address legal and regulatory risk scenarios What should be done FIRST by IT governance to support this effort?

Options:

A.

Request a regulatory risk reporting methodology

B.

Require critical success factors (CSFs) for IT risks.

C.

Establish IT-specific compliance objectives

D.

Communicate IT key risk indicators (KRIs) and triggers

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Questions 24

The BEST indicator of the risk appetite of an organization is the

Options:

A.

regulatory environment of the organization

B.

risk management capability of the organization

C.

board of directors' response to identified risk factors

D.

importance assigned to IT in meeting strategic goals

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Questions 25

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for prioritizing risk responses?

Options:

A.

The impact of the risk

B.

The replacement cost of the business asset

C.

The cost of risk mitigation controls

D.

The classification of the business asset

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Questions 26

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

High percentage of lagging indicators

B.

Nonexistent benchmark analysis

C.

Incomplete documentation for KRI monitoring

D.

Ineffective methods to assess risk

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Questions 27

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure new IT policies address the enterprise's requirements?

Options:

A.

involve IT leadership in the policy development process

B.

Require business users to sign acknowledgment of the poises

C.

involve business owners in the pokey development process

D.

Provide policy owners with greater enforcement authority

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Questions 28

If preventive controls cannot be Implemented due to technology limitations, which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce risk7

Options:

A.

Evaluate alternative controls.

B.

Redefine the business process to reduce the risk.

C.

Develop a plan to upgrade technology.

D.

Define a process for monitoring risk.

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Questions 29

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the maturity of the control environment

B.

Regularly monitoring the project plan

C.

Maintaining a key risk indicator for each asset in the risk register

D.

Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan

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Questions 30

When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

review alignment with the organizations strategy.

B.

understand the organization's information security policy.

C.

validate the organization's data classification scheme.

D.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.

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Questions 31

Which of the following would MOST likely require a risk practitioner to update the risk register?

Options:

A.

An alert being reported by the security operations center.

B.

Development of a project schedule for implementing a risk response

C.

Completion of a project for implementing a new control

D.

Engagement of a third party to conduct a vulnerability scan

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Questions 32

The BEST metric to demonstrate that servers are configured securely is the total number of servers:

Options:

A.

exceeding availability thresholds

B.

experiencing hardware failures

C.

exceeding current patching standards.

D.

meeting the baseline for hardening.

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Questions 33

Which of the following BEST enables effective IT control implementation?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Documented procedures

C.

Information security policies

D.

Information security standards

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Questions 34

Which risk response strategy could management apply to both positive and negative risk that has been identified?

Options:

A.

Transfer

B.

Accept

C.

Exploit

D.

Mitigate

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Questions 35

A zero-day vulnerability has been discovered in a globally used brand of hardware server that allows hackers to gain

access to affected IT systems. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this situation?

Options:

A.

Control effectiveness

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

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Questions 36

Who should be responsible (of evaluating the residual risk after a compensating control has been

Options:

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Risk owner

C.

Control owner

D.

Risk practitioner

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Questions 37

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the effectiveness of disaster recovery processes?

Options:

A.

Percentage of IT systems recovered within the mean time to restore (MTTR) during the disaster recovery test

B.

Percentage of issues arising from the disaster recovery test resolved on time

C.

Percentage of IT systems included in the disaster recovery test scope

D.

Percentage of IT systems meeting the recovery time objective (RTO) during the disaster recovery test

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Questions 38

Which stakeholder is MOST important to include when defining a risk profile during me selection process for a new third party application'?

Options:

A.

The third-party risk manager

B.

The application vendor

C.

The business process owner

D.

The information security manager

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Questions 39

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure data is properly sanitized while in cloud storage?

Options:

A.

Deleting the data from the file system

B.

Cryptographically scrambling the data

C.

Formatting the cloud storage at the block level

D.

Degaussing the cloud storage media

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Questions 40

Which of the following, who should be PRIMARILY responsible for performing user entitlement reviews?

Options:

A.

IT security manager

B.

IT personnel

C.

Data custodian

D.

Data owner

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Questions 41

Which of the following is the MOST critical factor to consider when determining an organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Fiscal management practices

B.

Business maturity

C.

Budget for implementing security

D.

Management culture

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Questions 42

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for effectively maintaining a risk register?

Options:

A.

An IT owner is assigned for each risk scenario.

B.

The register is updated frequently.

C.

The register is shared with executive management.

D.

Compensating controls are identified.

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Questions 43

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to managing an organization's end-user devices?

Options:

A.

Incomplete end-user device inventory

B.

Unsupported end-user applications

C.

Incompatible end-user devices

D.

Multiple end-user device models

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Questions 44

Which of the following is the BEST approach for selecting controls to minimize risk?

Options:

A.

Industry best practice review

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Control-effectiveness evaluation

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Questions 45

Before assigning sensitivity levels to information it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

define recovery time objectives (RTOs).

B.

define the information classification policy

C.

conduct a sensitivity analyse

D.

Identify information custodians

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Questions 46

Which of the following provides the BEST assurance of the effectiveness of vendor security controls?

Options:

A.

Review vendor control self-assessments (CSA).

B.

Review vendor service level agreement (SLA) metrics.

C.

Require independent control assessments.

D.

Obtain vendor references from existing customers.

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Questions 47

A cote data center went offline abruptly for several hours affecting many transactions across multiple locations. Which of the to" owing would provide the MOST useful information to determine mitigating controls?

Options:

A.

Forensic analysis

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BlA)

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Questions 48

An organization's business gap analysis reveals the need for a robust IT risk strategy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY consideration when participating in development of the new strategy?

Options:

A.

Scale of technology

B.

Risk indicators

C.

Risk culture

D.

Proposed risk budget

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Questions 49

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to reduce potential losses due to ongoing expense fraud?

Options:

A.

Implement user access controls

B.

Perform regular internal audits

C.

Develop and communicate fraud prevention policies

D.

Conduct fraud prevention awareness training.

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Questions 50

A recent big data project has resulted in the creation of an application used to support important investment decisions. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Data quality

B.

Maintenance costs

C.

Data redundancy

D.

System integration

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Questions 51

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure the continued effectiveness of the IT risk management function within an organization experiencing high employee turnover?

Options:

A.

Well documented policies and procedures

B.

Risk and issue tracking

C.

An IT strategy committee

D.

Change and release management

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Questions 52

An organization has used generic risk scenarios to populate its risk register. Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to assigning of the associated risk entries?

Options:

A.

The volume of risk scenarios is too large

B.

Risk aggregation has not been completed

C.

Risk scenarios are not applicable

D.

The risk analysts for each scenario is incomplete

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Questions 53

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of centralizing IT systems?

Options:

A.

Risk reporting

B.

Risk classification

C.

Risk monitoring

D.

Risk identification

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Questions 54

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure accountability for managing risk?

Options:

A.

Assign process owners to key risk areas.

B.

Obtain independent risk assessments.

C.

Assign incident response action plan responsibilities.

D.

Create accurate process narratives.

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Questions 55

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To support decision-making for risk response

B.

To hold risk owners accountable for risk action plans

C.

To secure resourcing for risk treatment efforts

D.

To enable senior management to compile a risk profile

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Questions 56

Who is MOST appropriate to be assigned ownership of a control

Options:

A.

The individual responsible for control operation

B.

The individual informed of the control effectiveness

C.

The individual responsible for resting the control

D.

The individual accountable for monitoring control effectiveness

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Questions 57

Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern for an IT risk practitioner when an employees.....

Options:

A.

The organization's structure has not been updated

B.

Unnecessary access permissions have not been removed.

C.

Company equipment has not been retained by IT

D.

Job knowledge was not transferred to employees m the former department

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Questions 58

Which of the following is the MOST important concern when assigning multiple risk owners for an identified risk?

Options:

A.

Accountability may not be clearly defined.

B.

Risk ratings may be inconsistently applied.

C.

Different risk taxonomies may be used.

D.

Mitigation efforts may be duplicated.

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Questions 59

A risk practitioner has collaborated with subject matter experts from the IT department to develop a large list of potential key risk indicators (KRIs) for all IT operations within the organization of the following, who should review the completed list and select the appropriate KRIs for implementation?

Options:

A.

IT security managers

B.

IT control owners

C.

IT auditors

D.

IT risk owners

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Questions 60

Which of the following is PRIMARILY a risk management responsibly of the first line of defense?

Options:

A.

Implementing risk treatment plans

B.

Validating the status of risk mitigation efforts

C.

Establishing risk policies and standards

D.

Conducting independent reviews of risk assessment results

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Questions 61

Using key risk indicators (KRIs) to illustrate changes in the risk profile PRIMARILY helps to:

Options:

A.

communicate risk trends to stakeholders.

B.

assign ownership of emerging risk scenarios.

C.

highlight noncompliance with the risk policy

D.

identify threats to emerging technologies.

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Questions 62

After the implementation of internal of Things (IoT) devices, new risk scenarios were identified. What is the PRIMARY reason to report this information to risk owners?

Options:

A.

To reevaluate continued use to IoT devices

B.

The add new controls to mitigate the risk

C.

The recommend changes to the IoT policy

D.

To confirm the impact to the risk profile

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Questions 63

What is the BEST information to present to business control owners when justifying costs related to controls?

Options:

A.

Loss event frequency and magnitude

B.

The previous year's budget and actuals

C.

Industry benchmarks and standards

D.

Return on IT security-related investments

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Questions 64

A risk practitioner is assisting with the preparation of a report on the organization s disaster recovery (DR) capabilities. Which information would have the MOST impact on the overall recovery profile?

Options:

A.

The percentage of systems meeting recovery target times has increased.

B.

The number of systems tested in the last year has increased.

C.

The number of systems requiring a recovery plan has increased.

D.

The percentage of systems with long recovery target times has decreased.

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Questions 65

A risk practitioners PRIMARY focus when validating a risk response action plan should be that risk response:

Options:

A.

reduces risk to an acceptable level

B.

quantifies risk impact

C.

aligns with business strategy

D.

advances business objectives.

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Questions 66

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for prioritizing risk treatment plans when faced with budget limitations?

Options:

A.

Inherent risk and likelihood

B.

Management action plans associated with audit findings

C.

Residual risk relative to appetite and tolerance

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI) trends

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Questions 67

Which of the following BEST provides an early warning that network access of terminated employees is not being revoked in accordance with the service level agreement (SLA)?

Options:

A.

Updating multi-factor authentication

B.

Monitoring key access control performance indicators

C.

Analyzing access control logs for suspicious activity

D.

Revising the service level agreement (SLA)

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Questions 68

Effective risk communication BEST benefits an organization by:

Options:

A.

helping personnel make better-informed decisions

B.

assisting the development of a risk register.

C.

improving the effectiveness of IT controls.

D.

increasing participation in the risk assessment process.

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Questions 69

Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization's change management process?

Options:

A.

Increase in the frequency of changes

B.

Percent of unauthorized changes

C.

Increase in the number of emergency changes

D.

Average time to complete changes

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Questions 70

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of an effective risk management program?

Options:

A.

Risk response plans are documented

B.

Controls are mapped to key risk scenarios.

C.

Key risk indicators are defined.

D.

Risk ownership is assigned

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Questions 71

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when establishing a new risk governance program?

Options:

A.

Developing an ongoing awareness and training program

B.

Creating policies and standards that are easy to comprehend

C.

Embedding risk management into the organization

D.

Completing annual risk assessments on critical resources

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Questions 72

The analysis of which of the following will BEST help validate whether suspicious network activity is malicious?

Options:

A.

Logs and system events

B.

Intrusion detection system (IDS) rules

C.

Vulnerability assessment reports

D.

Penetration test reports

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Questions 73

Which of the following would BEST ensure that identified risk scenarios are addressed?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the implementation of the risk response

B.

Creating a separate risk register for key business units

C.

Performing real-time monitoring of threats

D.

Performing regular risk control self-assessments

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Questions 74

After a risk has been identified, who is in the BEST position to select the appropriate risk treatment option?

Options:

A.

The risk practitioner

B.

The business process owner

C.

The risk owner

D.

The control owner

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Questions 75

The BEST way to justify the risk mitigation actions recommended in a risk assessment would be to:

Options:

A.

align with audit results.

B.

benchmark with competitor s actions.

C.

reference best practice.

D.

focus on the business drivers

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Questions 76

Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors PRIMARILY helps to:

Options:

A.

minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment.

B.

aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units.

C.

build a threat profile of the organization for management review.

D.

provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions.

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Questions 77

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management?

Options:

A.

To build an organizational risk-aware culture

B.

To continuously improve risk management processes

C.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

To identify gaps in risk management practices

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Questions 78

From a business perspective, which of the following is the MOST important objective of a disaster recovery test?

Options:

A.

The organization gains assurance it can recover from a disaster

B.

Errors are discovered in the disaster recovery process.

C.

All business-critical systems are successfully tested.

D.

All critical data is recovered within recovery time objectives (RTOs).

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Questions 79

Which of the following would be- MOST helpful to understand the impact of a new technology system on an organization's current risk profile?

Options:

A.

Hire consultants specializing m the new technology.

B.

Review existing risk mitigation controls.

C.

Conduct a gap analysis.

D.

Perform a risk assessment.

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Questions 80

Which of the following is MOST helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

A control self-assessment

B.

A third-party security assessment report

C.

Internal audit reports from the vendor

D.

Service level agreement monitoring

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Questions 81

Which of the following is the MOST useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management process?

Options:

A.

Number of tickets for provisioning new accounts

B.

Average time to provision user accounts

C.

Password reset volume per month

D.

Average account lockout time

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Questions 82

Which of the following elements of a risk register is MOST likely to change as a result of change in management's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk likelihood and impact

D.

Risk velocity

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Questions 83

Who should be accountable for ensuring effective cybersecurity controls are established?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Security management function

C.

IT management

D.

Enterprise risk function

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Questions 84

An organization has decided to commit to a business activity with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?

Options:

A.

Recommend risk remediation

B.

Change the level of risk appetite

C.

Document formal acceptance of the risk

D.

Reject the business initiative

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Questions 85

Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance is decreased.

B.

Residual risk is increased.

C.

Inherent risk is increased.

D.

Risk appetite is decreased

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Questions 86

A risk practitioner is organizing risk awareness training for senior management. Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in the training session?

Options:

A.

The organization's strategic risk management projects

B.

Senior management roles and responsibilities

C.

The organizations risk appetite and tolerance

D.

Senior management allocation of risk management resources

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Questions 87

An organization is planning to engage a cloud-based service provider for some of its data-intensive business processes. Which of the following is MOST important to help define the IT risk associated with this outsourcing activity?

Options:

A.

Service level agreement

B.

Customer service reviews

C.

Scope of services provided

D.

Right to audit the provider

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Questions 88

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is for the risk manager to:

Options:

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the development team of the concerns, and together formulate risk reduction measures.

C.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them

D.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

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Questions 89

The PRIMARY advantage of implementing an IT risk management framework is the:

Options:

A.

establishment of a reliable basis for risk-aware decision making.

B.

compliance with relevant legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

improvement of controls within the organization and minimized losses.

D.

alignment of business goals with IT objectives.

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Questions 90

Numerous media reports indicate a recently discovered technical vulnerability is being actively exploited. Which of the following would be the BEST response to this scenario?

Options:

A.

Assess the vulnerability management process.

B.

Conduct a control serf-assessment.

C.

Conduct a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Reassess the inherent risk of the target.

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Questions 91

Which of the following is MOST effective against external threats to an organizations confidential information?

Options:

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Data integrity checking

C.

Strong authentication

D.

Intrusion detection system

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Questions 92

In an organization with a mature risk management program, which of the following would provide the BEST evidence that the IT risk profile is up to date?

Options:

A.

Risk questionnaire

B.

Risk register

C.

Management assertion

D.

Compliance manual

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Questions 93

An organization's HR department has implemented a policy requiring staff members to take a minimum of five consecutive days leave per year to mitigate the risk of malicious insider activities. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) of the effectiveness of this policy?

Options:

A.

Number of malicious activities occurring during staff members leave

B.

Percentage of staff members seeking exception to the policy

C.

Percentage of staff members taking leave according to the policy

D.

Financial loss incurred due to malicious activities during staff members' leave

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Questions 94

IT management has asked for a consolidated view into the organization's risk profile to enable project prioritization and resource allocation. Which of the following materials would

be MOST helpful?

Options:

A.

IT risk register

B.

List of key risk indicators

C.

Internal audit reports

D.

List of approved projects

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Questions 95

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s PRIMARY focus when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Level of residual risk

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 96

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise prioritize risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Industry best practices

B.

Placement on the risk map

C.

Degree of variances in the risk

D.

Cost of risk mitigation

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Questions 97

A key risk indicator (KRI) is reported to senior management on a periodic basis as exceeding thresholds, but each time senior management has decided to take no action to reduce the risk. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for senior management's response?

Options:

A.

The underlying data source for the KRI is using inaccurate data and needs to be corrected.

B.

The KRI is not providing useful information and should be removed from the KRI inventory.

C.

The KRI threshold needs to be revised to better align with the organization s risk appetite

D.

Senior management does not understand the KRI and should undergo risk training.

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Questions 98

Which of the following is MOST helpful in providing an overview of an organization's risk management program?

Options:

A.

Risk management treatment plan

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

Risk management framework

D.

Risk register

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Questions 99

Which key performance efficiency IKPI) BEST measures the effectiveness of an organization's disaster recovery program?

Options:

A.

Number of service level agreement (SLA) violations

B.

Percentage of recovery issues identified during the exercise

C.

Number of total systems recovered within tie recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Percentage of critical systems recovered within tie recovery time objective (RTO)

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Questions 100

A root because analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators Who should be accountable for resolving the situation?

Options:

A.

HR training director

B.

Business process owner

C.

HR recruitment manager

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Questions 101

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce risk associated with an increase of online transactions on a retailer website?

Options:

A.

Scalable infrastructure

B.

A hot backup site

C.

Transaction limits

D.

Website activity monitoring

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Questions 102

An organization has decided to implement a new Internet of Things (loT) solution. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing security concerns associated with this new technology?

Options:

A.

Develop new loT risk scenarios.

B.

Implement loT device monitoring software.

C.

Introduce controls to the new threat environment.

D.

Engage external security reviews.

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Questions 103

When developing a response plan to address security incidents regarding sensitive data loss, it is MOST important

Options:

A.

revalidate current key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

revise risk management procedures.

C.

review the data classification policy.

D.

revalidate existing risk scenarios.

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Questions 104

Which of the following is the BEST control to minimize the risk associated with scope creep in software development?

Options:

A.

An established process for project change management

B.

Retention of test data and results for review purposes

C.

Business managements review of functional requirements

D.

Segregation between development, test, and production

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Questions 105

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to present an annual risk management update to the board''

Options:

A.

A summary of risk response plans with validation results

B.

A report with control environment assessment results

C.

A dashboard summarizing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

A summary of IT risk scenarios with business cases

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Questions 106

Which of the following BEST enables risk-based decision making in support of a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Impact analysis

B.

Control analysis

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Threat analysis

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Questions 107

Which of the following is the BEST method of creating risk awareness in an organization?

Options:

A.

Marking the risk register available to project stakeholders

B.

Ensuring senior management commitment to risk training

C.

Providing regular communication to risk managers

D.

Appointing the risk manager from the business units

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Questions 108

Which of the following is the result of a realized risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Technical event

B.

Threat event

C.

Vulnerability event

D.

Loss event

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Questions 109

An organization has experienced several incidents of extended network outages that have exceeded tolerance. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST step to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Recommend additional controls to address the risk.

B.

Update the risk tolerance level to acceptable thresholds.

C.

Update the incident-related risk trend in the risk register.

D.

Recommend a root cause analysis of the incidents.

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Questions 110

When evaluating a number of potential controls for treating risk, it is MOST important to consider:

Options:

A.

risk appetite and control efficiency.

B.

inherent risk and control effectiveness.

C.

residual risk and cost of control.

D.

risk tolerance and control complexity.

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Questions 111

To define the risk management strategy which of the following MUST be set by the board of directors?

Options:

A.

Operational strategies

B.

Risk governance

C.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 112

When a risk practitioner is determining a system's criticality. it is MOST helpful to review the associated:

Options:

A.

process flow.

B.

business impact analysis (BIA).

C.

service level agreement (SLA).

D.

system architecture.

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Questions 113

An organization is planning to move its application infrastructure from on-premises to the cloud. Which of the following is the BEST course of the actin to address the risk associated with data transfer if the relationship is terminated with the vendor?

Options:

A.

Meet with the business leaders to ensure the classification of their transferred data is in place

B.

Ensure the language in the contract explicitly states who is accountable for each step of the data transfer process

C.

Collect requirements for the environment to ensure the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is configured appropriately.

D.

Work closely with the information security officer to ensure the company has the proper security controls in place.

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Questions 114

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of a three lines of defense structure?

Options:

A.

An effective risk culture that empowers employees to report risk

B.

Effective segregation of duties to prevent internal fraud

C.

Clear accountability for risk management processes

D.

Improved effectiveness and efficiency of business operations

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Questions 115

Which of the following is the MOST useful information for a risk practitioner when planning response activities after risk identification?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk priorities

D.

Risk heat maps

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Questions 116

Calculation of the recovery time objective (RTO) is necessary to determine the:

Options:

A.

time required to restore files.

B.

point of synchronization

C.

priority of restoration.

D.

annual loss expectancy (ALE).

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Questions 117

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?

Options:

A.

Establishing employee awareness training

B.

Assigning accountability to risk owners

C.

Selling target dates to complete actions

D.

Contracting to third parties

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Questions 118

A risk practitioner has identified that the agreed recovery time objective (RTO) with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is longer than the business expectation. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan.

B.

Document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management.

C.

Include a right to audit clause in the service provider contract.

D.

Advise the risk owner to accept the risk.

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Questions 119

An organization's control environment is MOST effective when:

Options:

A.

controls perform as intended.

B.

controls operate efficiently.

C.

controls are implemented consistent

D.

control designs are reviewed periodically

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Questions 120

Malware has recently affected an organization. The MOST effective way to resolve this situation and define a comprehensive risk treatment plan would be to perform:

Options:

A.

a gap analysis

B.

a root cause analysis.

C.

an impact assessment.

D.

a vulnerability assessment.

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Questions 121

An organization has procured a managed hosting service and just discovered the location is likely to be flooded every 20 years. Of the following, who should be notified of this new information FIRST.

Options:

A.

The risk owner who also owns the business service enabled by this infrastructure

B.

The data center manager who is also employed under the managed hosting services contract

C.

The site manager who is required to provide annual risk assessments under the contract

D.

The chief information officer (CIO) who is responsible for the hosted services

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Questions 122

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the maturity of an organization's security incident handling process?

Options:

A.

The number of security incidents escalated to senior management

B.

The number of resolved security incidents

C.

The number of newly identified security incidents

D.

The number of recurring security incidents

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Questions 123

Which of the following should be the HIGHEST priority when developing a risk response?

Options:

A.

The risk response addresses the risk with a holistic view.

B.

The risk response is based on a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

The risk response is accounted for in the budget.

D.

The risk response aligns with the organization's risk appetite.

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Questions 124

When reviewing management's IT control self-assessments, a risk practitioner noted an ineffective control that links to several low residual risk scenarios. What should be the NEXT course of action?

Options:

A.

Assess management's risk tolerance.

B.

Recommend management accept the low-risk scenarios.

C.

Propose mitigating controls

D.

Re-evaluate the risk scenarios associated with the control

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Questions 125

Management has noticed storage costs have increased exponentially over the last 10 years because most users do not delete their emails. Which of the following can BEST alleviate this issue while not sacrificing security?

Options:

A.

Implementing record retention tools and techniques

B.

Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP)

C.

Sending notifications when near storage quota

D.

Implementing a bring your own device 1BVOD) policy

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Questions 126

Which of the following will BEST help mitigate the risk associated with malicious functionality in outsourced application development?

Options:

A.

Perform an m-depth code review with an expert

B.

Validate functionality by running in a test environment

C.

Implement a service level agreement.

D.

Utilize the change management process.

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Questions 127

Which of the following attributes of a key risk indicator (KRI) is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Repeatable

B.

Automated

C.

Quantitative

D.

Qualitative

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Questions 128

Which of the following is the FIRST step when developing a business case to drive the adoption of a risk remediation project by senior management?

Options:

A.

Calculating the cost

B.

Analyzing cost-effectiveness

C.

Determining the stakeholders

D.

Identifying the objectives

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Questions 129

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation?

Options:

A.

Completeness of system documentation

B.

Results of end user acceptance testing

C.

Variances between planned and actual cost

D.

availability of in-house resources

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Questions 130

The MAIN purpose of conducting a control self-assessment (CSA) is to:

Options:

A.

gain a better understanding of the control effectiveness in the organization

B.

gain a better understanding of the risk in the organization

C.

adjust the controls prior to an external audit

D.

reduce the dependency on external audits

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Questions 131

Which of the following is MOST important for successful incident response?

Options:

A.

The quantity of data logged by the attack control tools

B.

Blocking the attack route immediately

C.

The ability to trace the source of the attack

D.

The timeliness of attack recognition

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Questions 132

Which of the following is the BEST approach to mitigate the risk associated with a control deficiency?

Options:

A.

Perform a business case analysis

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Conduct a control sell-assessment (CSA)

D.

Build a provision for risk

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Questions 133

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Threats and vulnerabilities

B.

Internal and external risk factors

C.

Business objectives and strategies

D.

Management culture and behavior

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Questions 134

A control process has been implemented in response to a new regulatory requirement, but has significantly reduced productivity. Which of the following is the BEST way to resolve this concern?

Options:

A.

Absorb the loss in productivity.

B.

Request a waiver to the requirements.

C.

Escalate the issue to senior management

D.

Remove the control to accommodate business objectives.

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Questions 135

An organization wants to launch a campaign to advertise a new product Using data analytics, the campaign can be targeted to reach potential customers. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Data minimization

B.

Accountability

C.

Accuracy

D.

Purpose limitation

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Questions 136

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of establishing an organization's risk tolerance and appetite?

Options:

A.

To align with board reporting requirements

B.

To assist management in decision making

C.

To create organization-wide risk awareness

D.

To minimize risk mitigation efforts

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Questions 137

It is MOST appropriate for changes to be promoted to production after they are:

Options:

A.

communicated to business management

B.

tested by business owners.

C.

approved by the business owner.

D.

initiated by business users.

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Questions 138

A risk assessment has identified that departments have installed their own WiFi access points on the enterprise network. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

Options:

A.

The network security policy

B.

Potential business impact

C.

The WiFi access point configuration

D.

Planned remediation actions

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Questions 139

After several security incidents resulting in significant financial losses, IT management has decided to outsource the security function to a third party that provides 24/7 security operation services. Which risk response option has management implemented?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Risk transfer

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Questions 140

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?

Options:

A.

Using an aggregated view of organizational risk

B.

Ensuring relevance to organizational goals

C.

Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data Including

D.

Trend analysis of risk metrics

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Questions 141

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform ongoing risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Emerging risk must be continuously reported to management.

B.

New system vulnerabilities emerge at frequent intervals.

C.

The risk environment is subject to change.

D.

The information security budget must be justified.

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Questions 142

A rule-based data loss prevention {DLP) tool has recently been implemented to reduce the risk of sensitive data leakage. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this implementation?

Options:

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk velocity

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk impact

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Questions 143

An effective control environment is BEST indicated by controls that:

Options:

A.

minimize senior management's risk tolerance.

B.

manage risk within the organization's risk appetite.

C.

reduce the thresholds of key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

are cost-effective to implement

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Questions 144

Which of the following is the BEST approach to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Derive scenarios from IT risk policies and standards.

B.

Map scenarios to a recognized risk management framework.

C.

Gather scenarios from senior management.

D.

Benchmark scenarios against industry peers.

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Questions 145

To implement the MOST effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs), which of the following needs to be in place?

Options:

A.

Threshold definition

B.

Escalation procedures

C.

Automated data feed

D.

Controls monitoring

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Questions 146

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that suspicious network activity is identified?

Options:

A.

Analyzing intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

B.

Analyzing server logs

C.

Using a third-party monitoring provider

D.

Coordinating events with appropriate agencies

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Questions 147

Improvements in the design and implementation of a control will MOST likely result in an update to:

Options:

A.

inherent risk.

B.

residual risk.

C.

risk appetite

D.

risk tolerance

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Questions 148

The PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review business processes is to:

Options:

A.

Benchmark against peer organizations.

B.

Identify appropriate controls within business processes.

C.

Assess compliance with global standards.

D.

Identify risk owners related to business processes.

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Questions 149

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response?

Options:

A.

Align business objectives to the risk profile.

B.

Assess risk against business objectives

C.

Implement an organization-specific risk taxonomy.

D.

Explain risk details to management.

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Questions 150

Which of the following is the BEST method to identify unnecessary controls?

Options:

A.

Evaluating the impact of removing existing controls

B.

Evaluating existing controls against audit requirements

C.

Reviewing system functionalities associated with business processes

D.

Monitoring existing key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Questions 151

Whether the results of risk analyses should be presented in quantitative or qualitative terms should be based PRIMARILY on the:

Options:

A.

requirements of management.

B.

specific risk analysis framework being used.

C.

organizational risk tolerance

D.

results of the risk assessment.

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Questions 152

Which of the following is a specific concern related to machine learning algorithms?

Options:

A.

Low software quality

B.

Lack of access controls

C.

Data breaches

D.

Data bias

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Questions 153

Reviewing results from which of the following is the BEST way to identify information systems control deficiencies?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability and threat analysis

B.

Control remediation planning

C.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

D.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

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Questions 154

Which of the following is the MOST important element of a successful risk awareness training program?

Options:

A.

Customizing content for the audience

B.

Providing incentives to participants

C.

Mapping to a recognized standard

D.

Providing metrics for measurement

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Questions 155

An organization that has been the subject of multiple social engineering attacks is developing a risk awareness program. The PRIMARY goal of this program should be to:

Options:

A.

reduce the risk to an acceptable level.

B.

communicate the consequences for violations.

C.

implement industry best practices.

D.

reduce the organization's risk appetite

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Questions 156

Real-time monitoring of security cameras implemented within a retail store is an example of which type of control?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Deterrent

C.

Compensating

D.

Detective

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Questions 157

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

Alignment to risk responses

B.

Alignment to management reports

C.

Alerts when risk thresholds are reached

D.

Identification of trends

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Questions 158

Which of the following is the MOST important data source for monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Directives from legal and regulatory authorities

B.

Audit reports from internal information systems audits

C.

Automated logs collected from different systems

D.

Trend analysis of external risk factors

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Questions 159

Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective way to test a business continuity plan?

Options:

A.

Conduct interviews with key stakeholders.

B.

Conduct a tabletop exercise.

C.

Conduct a disaster recovery exercise.

D.

Conduct a full functional exercise.

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Questions 160

Which of the following aspects of an IT risk and control self-assessment would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

Options:

A.

Changes in control design

B.

A decrease in the number of key controls

C.

Changes in control ownership

D.

An increase in residual risk

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Questions 161

Which of the following would be considered a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

Delayed removal of employee access

B.

Authorized administrative access to HR files

C.

Corruption of files due to malware

D.

Server downtime due to a denial of service (DoS) attack

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Questions 162

Establishing and organizational code of conduct is an example of which type of control?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Directive

C.

Detective

D.

Compensating

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Questions 163

Which of the following is of GREATEST concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment?

Options:

A.

A decrease in control layering effectiveness

B.

An increase in inherent risk

C.

An increase in control vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in the level of residual risk

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Questions 164

Which of the following is the MAIN reason to continuously monitor IT-related risk?

Options:

A.

To redefine the risk appetite and risk tolerance levels based on changes in risk factors

B.

To update the risk register to reflect changes in levels of identified and new IT-related risk

C.

To ensure risk levels are within acceptable limits of the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance

D.

To help identify root causes of incidents and recommend suitable long-term solutions

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Questions 165

A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

Options:

A.

communication

B.

identification.

C.

treatment.

D.

assessment.

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Questions 166

A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

Options:

A.

identification.

B.

treatment.

C.

communication.

D.

assessment

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Questions 167

Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure a terminated employee's access to IT systems is revoked upon departure from the organization?

Options:

A.

Login attempts are reconciled to a list of terminated employees.

B.

A list of terminated employees is generated for reconciliation against current IT access.

C.

A process to remove employee access during the exit interview is implemented.

D.

The human resources (HR) system automatically revokes system access.

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Questions 168

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of implementing a data classification program?

Options:

A.

Reduction in data complexity

B.

Reduction in processing times

C.

Identification of appropriate ownership

D.

Identification of appropriate controls

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Questions 169

A review of an organization s controls has determined its data loss prevention {DLP) system is currently failing to detect outgoing emails containing credit card data. Which of the following would be MOST impacted?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Residual risk

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 170

A risk practitioner has identified that the organization's secondary data center does not provide redundancy for a critical application. Who should have the authority to accept the associated risk?

Options:

A.

Business continuity director

B.

Disaster recovery manager

C.

Business application owner

D.

Data center manager

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Questions 171

An organization has determined a risk scenario is outside the defined risk tolerance level. What should be the NEXT course of action?

Options:

A.

Develop a compensating control.

B.

Allocate remediation resources.

C.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

D.

Identify risk responses

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Questions 172

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input when designing IT controls?

Options:

A.

Benchmark of industry standards

B.

Internal and external risk reports

C.

Recommendations from IT risk experts

D.

Outcome of control self-assessments

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Questions 173

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs?

Options:

A.

Ensuring availability of resources for log analysis

B.

Implementing log analysis tools to automate controls

C.

Ensuring the control is proportional to the risk

D.

Building correlations between logs collected from different sources

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Questions 174

Which of the following techniques would be used during a risk assessment to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Sensitivity analysis

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Decision tree

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Questions 175

Which of the following situations reflects residual risk?

Options:

A.

Risk that is present before risk acceptance has been finalized

B.

Risk that is removed after a risk acceptance has been finalized

C.

Risk that is present before mitigation controls have been applied

D.

Risk that remains after mitigation controls have been applied

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Questions 176

Which of the following is MOST critical when designing controls?

Options:

A.

Involvement of internal audit

B.

Involvement of process owner

C.

Quantitative impact of the risk

D.

Identification of key risk indicators

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Questions 177

Which of the following is the MOST important factor affecting risk management in an organization?

Options:

A.

The risk manager's expertise

B.

Regulatory requirements

C.

Board of directors' expertise

D.

The organization's culture

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Questions 178

An organization has identified a risk exposure due to weak technical controls in a newly implemented HR system. The risk practitioner is documenting the risk in the risk register. The risk should be owned by the:

Options:

A.

chief risk officer.

B.

project manager.

C.

chief information officer.

D.

business process owner.

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Questions 179

Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying new risk exposures due to changes in the business environment?

Options:

A.

Standard operating procedures

B.

SWOT analysis

C.

Industry benchmarking

D.

Control gap analysis

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Questions 180

An organization's senior management is considering whether to acquire cyber insurance. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to enable management’s decision?

Options:

A.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Conduct a SWOT analysis.

C.

Provide data on the number of risk events from the last year.

D.

Report on recent losses experienced by industry peers.

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Questions 181

A contract associated with a cloud service provider MUST include:

Options:

A.

ownership of responsibilities.

B.

a business recovery plan.

C.

provision for source code escrow.

D.

the providers financial statements.

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Questions 182

Which of the following IT controls is MOST useful in mitigating the risk associated with inaccurate data?

Options:

A.

Encrypted storage of data

B.

Links to source data

C.

Audit trails for updates and deletions

D.

Check totals on data records and data fields

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Questions 183

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Developing contingency plans for key processes

B.

Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register

D.

Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Questions 184

Which of the following would be a risk practitioners’ BEST recommendation for preventing cyber intrusion?

Options:

A.

Establish a cyber response plan

B.

Implement data loss prevention (DLP) tools.

C.

Implement network segregation.

D.

Strengthen vulnerability remediation efforts.

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Questions 185

An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization's secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

Options:

A.

Employ security guards.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Install security cameras.

D.

Require security access badges.

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Questions 186

The MOST effective way to increase the likelihood that risk responses will be implemented is to:

Options:

A.

create an action plan

B.

assign ownership

C.

review progress reports

D.

perform regular audits.

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Questions 187

During testing, a risk practitioner finds the IT department's recovery time objective (RTO) for a key system does not align with the enterprise's business continuity plan (BCP). Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Report the gap to senior management

B.

Consult with the IT department to update the RTO

C.

Complete a risk exception form.

D.

Consult with the business owner to update the BCP

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Questions 188

A risk practitioner discovers several key documents detailing the design of a product currently in development have been posted on the Internet. What should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

invoke the established incident response plan.

B.

Inform internal audit.

C.

Perform a root cause analysis

D.

Conduct an immediate risk assessment

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Questions 189

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the potential organizational impact of emerging privacy regulations?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the security architecture maturity.

B.

Map the new requirements to the existing control framework.

C.

Charter a privacy steering committee.

D.

Conduct a privacy impact assessment (PIA).

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Questions 190

While conducting an organization-wide risk assessment, it is noted that many of the information security policies have not changed in the past three years. The BEST course of action is to:

Options:

A.

review and update the policies to align with industry standards.

B.

determine that the policies should be updated annually.

C.

report that the policies are adequate and do not need to be updated frequently.

D.

review the policies against current needs to determine adequacy.

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Questions 191

From a risk management perspective, the PRIMARY objective of using maturity models is to enable:

Options:

A.

solution delivery.

B.

resource utilization.

C.

strategic alignment.

D.

performance evaluation.

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Questions 192

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to enhance understanding of risk among stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk scenarios

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Threat analysis

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Questions 193

Which of the following approaches will BEST help to ensure the effectiveness of risk awareness training?

Options:

A.

Piloting courses with focus groups

B.

Using reputable third-party training programs

C.

Reviewing content with senior management

D.

Creating modules for targeted audiences

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Questions 194

When of the following provides the MOST tenable evidence that a business process control is effective?

Options:

A.

Demonstration that the control is operating as designed

B.

A successful walk-through of the associated risk assessment

C.

Management attestation that the control is operating effectively

D.

Automated data indicating that risk has been reduced

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Questions 195

During a risk treatment plan review, a risk practitioner finds the approved risk action plan has not been completed However, there were other risk mitigation actions implemented. Which of the fallowing is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the cost-benefit of mitigating controls

B.

Mark the risk status as unresolved within the risk register

C.

Verify the sufficiency of mitigating controls with the risk owner

D.

Update the risk register with implemented mitigating actions

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Questions 196

Which of the following will BEST help in communicating strategic risk priorities?

Options:

A.

Heat map

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Balanced Scorecard

D.

Risk register

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Questions 197

Which of the following should be an element of the risk appetite of an organization?

Options:

A.

The effectiveness of compensating controls

B.

The enterprise's capacity to absorb loss

C.

The residual risk affected by preventive controls

D.

The amount of inherent risk considered appropriate

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Questions 198

An information system for a key business operation is being moved from an in-house application to a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor. Which of the following will have the GREATEST impact on the ability to monitor risk?

Options:

A.

Reduced ability to evaluate key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Reduced access to internal audit reports

C.

Dependency on the vendor's key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Dependency on service level agreements (SLAs)

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Questions 199

An employee lost a personal mobile device that may contain sensitive corporate information. What should be the risk practitioner's recommendation?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk analysis.

B.

Initiate a remote data wipe.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan

D.

Disable the user account.

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Questions 200

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of providing an aggregated view of IT risk to business management?

Options:

A.

To enable consistent data on risk to be obtained

B.

To allow for proper review of risk tolerance

C.

To identify dependencies for reporting risk

D.

To provide consistent and clear terminology

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Questions 201

Which of the following is the MOST important component in a risk treatment plan?

Options:

A.

Technical details

B.

Target completion date

C.

Treatment plan ownership

D.

Treatment plan justification

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Questions 202

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security metrics reporting?

Options:

A.

Organizational reporting process

B.

Incident reporting procedures

C.

Regularly scheduled audits

D.

Incident management policy

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Questions 203

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of sensitive personal data leakage from a software development environment?

Options:

A.

Tokenized personal data only in test environments

B.

Data loss prevention tools (DLP) installed in passive mode

C.

Anonymized personal data in non-production environments

D.

Multi-factor authentication for access to non-production environments

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Questions 204

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to address an organization's need to secure multiple systems with limited IT resources?

Options:

A.

Apply available security patches.

B.

Schedule a penetration test.

C.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Perform a vulnerability analysis.

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Questions 205

In an organization that allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes, which of the following is the BEST way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed?

Options:

A.

Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential

B.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

C.

Taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data

D.

Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements

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Questions 206

Prudent business practice requires that risk appetite not exceed:

Options:

A.

inherent risk.

B.

risk tolerance.

C.

risk capacity.

D.

residual risk.

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Questions 207

An IT department originally planned to outsource the hosting of its data center at an overseas location to reduce operational expenses. After a risk assessment, the department has decided to keep the data center in-house. How should the risk treatment response be reflected in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Risk transfer

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Questions 208

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's PRIMARY focus when tasked with ensuring organization records are being retained for a sufficient period of time to meet legal obligations?

Options:

A.

Data duplication processes

B.

Data archival processes

C.

Data anonymization processes

D.

Data protection processes

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Questions 209

An application runs a scheduled job that compiles financial data from multiple business systems and updates the financial reporting system. If this job runs too long, it can delay financial reporting. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Implement database activity and capacity monitoring.

B.

Ensure the business is aware of the risk.

C.

Ensure the enterprise has a process to detect such situations.

D.

Consider providing additional system resources to this job.

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Questions 210

Which of the following BEST enforces access control for an organization that uses multiple cloud technologies?

Options:

A.

Senior management support of cloud adoption strategies

B.

Creation of a cloud access risk management policy

C.

Adoption of a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution

D.

Expansion of security information and event management (SIEM) to cloud services

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Questions 211

An organization has been notified that a disgruntled, terminated IT administrator has tried to break into the corporate network. Which of the following discoveries should be of GREATEST concern to the organization?

Options:

A.

Authentication logs have been disabled.

B.

An external vulnerability scan has been detected.

C.

A brute force attack has been detected.

D.

An increase in support requests has been observed.

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Questions 212

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an effective IT security awareness program?

Options:

A.

Decreased success rate of internal phishing tests

B.

Decreased number of reported security incidents

C.

Number of disciplinary actions issued for security violations

D.

Number of employees that complete security training

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Questions 213

Which of the following is the MOST important responsibility of a risk owner?

Options:

A.

Testing control design

B.

Accepting residual risk

C.

Establishing business information criteria

D.

Establishing the risk register

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Questions 214

Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of implementing a risk management program?

Options:

A.

Enabling risk-aware decisions

B.

Promoting a risk-aware culture

C.

Improving security governance

D.

Reducing residual risk

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Questions 215

Management has required information security awareness training to reduce the risk associated with credential compromise. What is the BEST way to assess the effectiveness of the training?

Options:

A.

Conduct social engineering testing.

B.

Audit security awareness training materials.

C.

Administer an end-of-training quiz.

D.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

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Questions 216

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with redundant data in an organization's inventory system?

Options:

A.

Poor access control

B.

Unnecessary data storage usage

C.

Data inconsistency

D.

Unnecessary costs of program changes

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Questions 217

Determining if organizational risk is tolerable requires:

Options:

A.

mapping residual risk with cost of controls

B.

comparing against regulatory requirements

C.

comparing industry risk appetite with the organizations.

D.

understanding the organization's risk appetite.

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Questions 218

The PRIMARY benefit of conducting continuous monitoring of access controls is the ability to identify:

Options:

A.

inconsistencies between security policies and procedures

B.

possible noncompliant activities that lead to data disclosure

C.

leading or lagging key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

unknown threats to undermine existing access controls

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Questions 219

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery test of critical business processes?

Options:

A.

Percentage of job failures identified and resolved during the recovery process

B.

Percentage of processes recovered within the recovery time and point objectives

C.

Number of current test plans and procedures

D.

Number of issues and action items resolved during the recovery test

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Questions 220

Which of the following is MOST important to the integrity of a security log?

Options:

A.

Least privilege access

B.

Inability to edit

C.

Ability to overwrite

D.

Encryption

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Questions 221

Which of the following is the BEST way to manage the risk associated with malicious activities performed by database administrators (DBAs)?

Options:

A.

Activity logging and monitoring

B.

Periodic access review

C.

Two-factor authentication

D.

Awareness training and background checks

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Questions 222

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Heat map

D.

Risk register

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Questions 223

Which of the following is the BEST reason to use qualitative measures to express residual risk levels related to emerging threats?

Options:

A.

Qualitative measures require less ongoing monitoring.

B.

Qualitative measures are better aligned to regulatory requirements.

C.

Qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment.

D.

Qualitative measures are easier to update.

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Questions 224

Which of the following should be done FIRST when information is no longer required to support business objectives?

Options:

A.

Archive the information to a backup database.

B.

Protect the information according to the classification policy.

C.

Assess the information against the retention policy.

D.

Securely and permanently erase the information

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Questions 225

Which of the following tasks should be completed prior to creating a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Identifying the recovery response team

C.

Procuring a recovery site

D.

Assigning sensitivity levels to data

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Questions 226

Risk acceptance of an exception to a security control would MOST likely be justified when:

Options:

A.

automation cannot be applied to the control

B.

business benefits exceed the loss exposure.

C.

the end-user license agreement has expired.

D.

the control is difficult to enforce in practice.

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Questions 227

A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve business stakeholders is when:

Options:

A.

updating the risk register

B.

documenting the risk scenarios.

C.

validating the risk scenarios

D.

identifying risk mitigation controls.

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Questions 228

A control for mitigating risk in a key business area cannot be implemented immediately. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a compensating control needs to be applied?

Options:

A.

Obtain the risk owner's approval.

B.

Record the risk as accepted in the risk register.

C.

Inform senior management.

D.

update the risk response plan.

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Questions 229

Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in a risk awareness training program for all staff?

Options:

A.

Internal and external information security incidents

B.

The risk department's roles and responsibilities

C.

Policy compliance requirements and exceptions process

D.

The organization's information security risk profile

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Questions 230

Which of the following would require updates to an organization's IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Discovery of an ineffectively designed key IT control

B.

Management review of key risk indicators (KRls)

C.

Changes to the team responsible for maintaining the register

D.

Completion of the latest internal audit

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Questions 231

An organization automatically approves exceptions to security policies on a recurring basis. This practice is MOST likely the result of:

Options:

A.

a lack of mitigating actions for identified risk

B.

decreased threat levels

C.

ineffective service delivery

D.

ineffective IT governance

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Questions 232

The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure MOST likely demonstrates:

Options:

A.

corporate culture alignment

B.

low risk tolerance

C.

high risk tolerance

D.

corporate culture misalignment.

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Questions 233

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit for an organization with a strong risk awareness culture?

Options:

A.

Reducing the involvement by senior management

B.

Using more risk specialists

C.

Reducing the need for risk policies and guidelines

D.

Discussing and managing risk as a team

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Questions 234

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring adherence to an organization's user accounts provisioning practices is the percentage of:

Options:

A.

accounts without documented approval

B.

user accounts with default passwords

C.

active accounts belonging to former personnel

D.

accounts with dormant activity.

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Questions 235

Which of the following is MOST helpful in aligning IT risk with business objectives?

Options:

A.

Introducing an approved IT governance framework

B.

Integrating the results of top-down risk scenario analyses

C.

Performing a business impact analysis (BlA)

D.

Implementing a risk classification system

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Questions 236

A risk practitioner is preparing a report to communicate changes in the risk and control environment. The BEST way to engage stakeholder attention is to:

Options:

A.

include detailed deviations from industry benchmarks,

B.

include a summary linking information to stakeholder needs,

C.

include a roadmap to achieve operational excellence,

D.

publish the report on-demand for stakeholders.

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Questions 237

While reviewing the risk register, a risk practitioner notices that different business units have significant variances in inherent risk for the same risk scenario. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Update the risk register with the average of residual risk for both business units.

B.

Review the assumptions of both risk scenarios to determine whether the variance is reasonable.

C.

Update the risk register to ensure both risk scenarios have the highest residual risk.

D.

Request that both business units conduct another review of the risk.

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Questions 238

The PRIMARY purpose of using a framework for risk analysis is to:

Options:

A.

improve accountability

B.

improve consistency

C.

help define risk tolerance

D.

help develop risk scenarios.

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Questions 239

An organization is conducting a review of emerging risk. Which of the following is the BEST input for this exercise?

Options:

A.

Audit reports

B.

Industry benchmarks

C.

Financial forecasts

D.

Annual threat reports

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Questions 240

When of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) to determine the effectiveness of en intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

Options:

A.

Percentage of system uptime

B.

Percentage of relevant threats mitigated

C.

Total number of threats identified

D.

Reaction time of the system to threats

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Questions 241

Which of the following is MOST important to compare against the corporate risk profile?

Options:

A.

Industry benchmarks

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Regulatory compliance

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Questions 242

Upon learning that the number of failed back-up attempts continually exceeds the current risk threshold, the risk practitioner should:

Options:

A.

inquire about the status of any planned corrective actions

B.

keep monitoring the situation as there is evidence that this is normal

C.

adjust the risk threshold to better reflect actual performance

D.

initiate corrective action to address the known deficiency

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Questions 243

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of analyzing logs collected from different systems?

Options:

A.

A record of incidents is maintained.

B.

Forensic investigations are facilitated.

C.

Security violations can be identified.

D.

Developing threats are detected earlier.

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Questions 244

Winch of the following can be concluded by analyzing the latest vulnerability report for the it infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Likelihood of a threat

B.

Impact of technology risk

C.

Impact of operational risk

D.

Control weakness

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Questions 245

Who is BEST suited to determine whether a new control properly mitigates data loss risk within a system?

Options:

A.

Data owner

B.

Control owner

C.

Risk owner

D.

System owner

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Questions 246

Which of the following should be included in a risk scenario to be used for risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Threat type

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Residual risk

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Questions 247

Which of the following controls are BEST strengthened by a clear organizational code of ethics?

Options:

A.

Detective controls

B.

Administrative controls

C.

Technical controls

D.

Preventive controls

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Questions 248

Which of the following should be determined FIRST when a new security vulnerability is made public?

Options:

A.

Whether the affected technology is used within the organization

B.

Whether the affected technology is Internet-facing

C.

What mitigating controls are currently in place

D.

How pervasive the vulnerability is within the organization

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Questions 249

A change management process has recently been updated with new testing procedures. What is the NEXT course of action?

Options:

A.

Monitor processes to ensure recent updates are being followed.

B.

Communicate to those who test and promote changes.

C.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis to justify the cost of the control.

D.

Assess the maturity of the change management process.

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Questions 250

Which of me following is MOST helpful to mitigate the risk associated with an application under development not meeting business objectives?

Options:

A.

Identifying tweets that may compromise enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

Including diverse Business scenarios in user acceptance testing (UAT)

C.

Performing risk assessments during the business case development stage

D.

Including key stakeholders in review of user requirements

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Questions 251

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of an enterprise risk management (ERM) program?

Options:

A.

To create a complete repository of risk to the organization

B.

To create a comprehensive view of critical risk to the organization

C.

To provide a bottom-up view of the most significant risk scenarios

D.

To optimize costs of managing risk scenarios in the organization

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Questions 252

Which of the following roles is BEST suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives?

Options:

A.

IT management

B.

Internal audit

C.

Process owners

D.

Senior management

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Questions 253

The PRIMARY reason for tracking the status of risk mitigation plans is to ensure:

Options:

A.

the proposed controls are implemented as scheduled.

B.

security controls are tested prior to implementation.

C.

compliance with corporate policies.

D.

the risk response strategy has been decided.

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Questions 254

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that a selected risk treatment plan is effective?

Options:

A.

Identifying key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Evaluating the return on investment (ROI)

C.

Evaluating the residual risk level

D.

Performing a cost-benefit analysis

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Questions 255

Which of the following is the BEST indication of a mature organizational risk culture?

Options:

A.

Corporate risk appetite is communicated to staff members.

B.

Risk owners understand and accept accountability for risk.

C.

Risk policy has been published and acknowledged by employees.

D.

Management encourages the reporting of policy breaches.

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Questions 256

Which of the following should be the FIRST step when a company is made aware of new regulatory requirements impacting IT?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis.

B.

Prioritize impact to the business units.

C.

Perform a risk assessment.

D.

Review the risk tolerance and appetite.

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Questions 257

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner'$ BEST recommendation to help ensure cyber risk is assessed and reflected in the enterprise-level risk profile?

Options:

A.

Manage cyber risk according to the organization's risk management framework.

B.

Define cyber roles and responsibilities across the organization

C.

Conduct cyber risk awareness training tailored specifically for senior management

D.

Implement a cyber risk program based on industry best practices

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Questions 258

A risk practitioner has just learned about new malware that has severely impacted industry peers worldwide data loss?

Options:

A.

Customer database manager

B.

Customer data custodian

C.

Data privacy officer

D.

Audit committee

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Questions 259

Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness against technical vulnerabilities that could be exploited to compromise an information system?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability scanning

B.

Systems log correlation analysis

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Monitoring of intrusion detection system (IDS) alerts

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Questions 260

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of periodically reviewing an organization's risk profile?

Options:

A.

Align business objectives with risk appetite.

B.

Enable risk-based decision making.

C.

Design and implement risk response action plans.

D.

Update risk responses in the risk register

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Questions 261

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to adopt key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk monitoring and reporting process?

Options:

A.

To provide data for establishing the risk profile

B.

To provide assurance of adherence to risk management policies

C.

To provide measurements on the potential for risk to occur

D.

To provide assessments of mitigation effectiveness

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Questions 262

An organization must make a choice among multiple options to respond to a risk. The stakeholders cannot agree and decide to postpone the decision. Which of the following risk responses has the organization adopted?

Options:

A.

Transfer

B.

Mitigation

C.

Avoidance

D.

Acceptance

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Questions 263

Which of the following provides the MOST up-to-date information about the effectiveness of an organization's overall IT control environment?

Options:

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Risk heat maps

C.

Internal audit findings

D.

Periodic penetration testing

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Questions 264

Days before the realization of an acquisition, a data breach is discovered at the company to be acquired. For the accruing organization, this situation represents which of the following?

Options:

A.

Threat event

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk event

D.

Security incident

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Questions 265

Which of the following is MOST helpful in preventing risk events from materializing?

Options:

A.

Prioritizing and tracking issues

B.

Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Reviewing and analyzing security incidents

D.

Maintaining the risk register

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Questions 266

Which of the following BEST represents a critical threshold value for a key control indicator (KCI)?

Options:

A.

The value at which control effectiveness would fail

B.

Thresholds benchmarked to peer organizations

C.

A typical operational value

D.

A value that represents the intended control state

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Questions 267

An IT department has organized training sessions to improve user awareness of organizational information security policies. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to reflect effectiveness of the training?

Options:

A.

Number of training sessions completed

B.

Percentage of staff members who complete the training with a passing score

C.

Percentage of attendees versus total staff

D.

Percentage of staff members who attend the training with positive feedback

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Questions 268

Which of the following is MOST important to the successful development of IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Internal and external audit reports

C.

Threat and vulnerability analysis

D.

Control effectiveness assessment

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Questions 269

A risk practitioner has received an updated enterprise risk management (ERM) report showing that residual risk is now within the organization's defined appetite and tolerance levels. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Identify new risk entries to include in ERM.

B.

Remove the risk entries from the ERM register.

C.

Re-perform the risk assessment to confirm results.

D.

Verify the adequacy of risk monitoring plans.

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Questions 270

Which of the following should be done FIRST when developing a data protection management plan?

Options:

A.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Identify critical data.

C.

Establish a data inventory.

D.

Conduct a risk analysis.

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Questions 271

An organization has implemented a preventive control to lock user accounts after three unsuccessful login attempts. This practice has been proven to be unproductive, and a change in the control threshold value has been recommended. Who should authorize changing this threshold?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

IT security manager

C.

IT system owner

D.

Control owner

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Questions 272

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action when a tolerance threshold is exceeded?

Options:

A.

Communicate potential impact to decision makers.

B.

Research the root cause of similar incidents.

C.

Verify the response plan is adequate.

D.

Increase human resources to respond in the interim.

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Questions 273

A department allows multiple users to perform maintenance on a system using a single set of credentials. A risk practitioner determined this practice to be high-risk. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate this risk?

Options:

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Audit trail review

C.

Multi-factor authentication

D.

Data encryption at rest

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Questions 274

Which of the following will help ensure the elective decision-making of an IT risk management committee?

Options:

A.

Key stakeholders are enrolled as members

B.

Approved minutes ate forwarded to senior management

C.

Committee meets at least quarterly

D.

Functional overlap across the business is minimized

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Questions 275

A risk practitioner identifies a database application that has been developed and implemented by the business independently of IT. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Escalate the concern to senior management.

B.

Document the reasons for the exception.

C.

Include the application in IT risk assessments.

D.

Propose that the application be transferred to IT.

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Questions 276

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that risk management is driving business decisions in an organization?

Options:

A.

Compliance breaches are addressed in a timely manner.

B.

Risk ownership is identified and assigned.

C.

Risk treatment options receive adequate funding.

D.

Residual risk is within risk tolerance.

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Questions 277

Which of the following is MOST important when considering risk in an enterprise risk management (ERM) process?

Options:

A.

Financial risk is given a higher priority.

B.

Risk with strategic impact is included.

C.

Security strategy is given a higher priority.

D.

Risk identified by industry benchmarking is included.

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Questions 278

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when determining if a specific control should be implemented?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Attribute analysis

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 279

Which of the following approaches BEST identifies information systems control deficiencies?

Options:

A.

Countermeasures analysis

B.

Best practice assessment

C.

Gap analysis

D.

Risk assessment

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Questions 280

A PRIMARY advantage of involving business management in evaluating and managing risk is that management:

Options:

A.

better understands the system architecture.

B.

is more objective than risk management.

C.

can balance technical and business risk.

D.

can make better-informed business decisions.

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Questions 281

The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as:

Options:

A.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls.

B.

the likelihood of a given threat.

C.

a function of the likelihood and impact.

D.

the magnitude of an impact.

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Questions 282

Which of We following is the MOST effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud?

Options:

A.

Establish baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider.

B.

Require the cloud prowler 10 disclose past data privacy breaches.

C.

Ensure the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment.

D.

Specify cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract

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Questions 283

Which of the following is the BEST way to confirm whether appropriate automated controls are in place within a recently implemented system?

Options:

A.

Perform a post-implementation review.

B.

Conduct user acceptance testing.

C.

Review the key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

Interview process owners.

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Questions 284

The risk associated with data loss from a website which contains sensitive customer information is BEST owned by:

Options:

A.

the third-party website manager

B.

the business process owner

C.

IT security

D.

the compliance manager

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Questions 285

From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools?

Options:

A.

Residual risk is reduced.

B.

Staff costs are reduced.

C.

Operational costs are reduced.

D.

Inherent risk is reduced.

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Questions 286

Which of the following BEST confirms the existence and operating effectiveness of information systems controls?

Options:

A.

Self-assessment questionnaires completed by management

B.

Review of internal audit and third-party reports

C.

Management review and sign-off on system documentation

D.

First-hand direct observation of the controls in operation

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Questions 287

To minimize risk in a software development project, when is the BEST time to conduct a risk analysis?

Options:

A.

During the business requirement definitions phase

B.

Before periodic steering committee meetings

C.

At each stage of the development life cycle

D.

During the business case development

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Questions 288

A software developer has administrative access to a production application. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The administrative access does not allow for activity log monitoring.

B.

The administrative access does not follow password management protocols.

C.

The administrative access represents a deviation from corporate policy.

D.

The administrative access represents a segregation of duties conflict.

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Questions 289

Which of the following will BEST help an organization select a recovery strategy for critical systems?

Options:

A.

Review the business impact analysis.

B.

Create a business continuity plan.

C.

Analyze previous disaster recovery reports.

D.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

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Questions 290

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the board of directors in corporate risk governance?

Options:

A.

Approving operational strategies and objectives

B.

Monitoring the results of actions taken to mitigate risk

C.

Ensuring the effectiveness of the risk management program

D.

Ensuring risk scenarios are identified and recorded in the risk register

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Questions 291

The MAIN goal of the risk analysis process is to determine the:

Options:

A.

potential severity of impact

B.

frequency and magnitude of loss

C.

control deficiencies

D.

threats and vulnerabilities

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Questions 292

Before implementing instant messaging within an organization using a public solution, which of the following should be in place to mitigate data leakage risk?

Options:

A.

A data extraction tool

B.

An access control list

C.

An intrusion detection system (IDS)

D.

An acceptable usage policy

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Questions 293

An organization striving to be on the leading edge in regard to risk monitoring would MOST likely implement:

Options:

A.

procedures to monitor the operation of controls.

B.

a tool for monitoring critical activities and controls.

C.

real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions.

D.

monitoring activities for all critical assets.

E.

Perform a controls assessment.

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Questions 294

Which of the following is MOST likely to be impacted as a result of a new policy which allows staff members to remotely connect to the organization's IT systems via personal or public computers?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Risk tolerance

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Questions 295

Which of the following conditions presents the GREATEST risk to an application?

Options:

A.

Application controls are manual.

B.

Application development is outsourced.

C.

Source code is escrowed.

D.

Developers have access to production environment.

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Questions 296

Which of the following should an organization perform to forecast the effects of a disaster?

Options:

A.

Develop a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Define recovery time objectives (RTO).

C.

Analyze capability maturity model gaps.

D.

Simulate a disaster recovery.

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Questions 297

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when determining the control requirements for data privacy arising from emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

internal audit recommendations

B.

Laws and regulations

C.

Policies and procedures

D.

Standards and frameworks

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Questions 298

The MAIN purpose of a risk register is to:

Options:

A.

document the risk universe of the organization.

B.

promote an understanding of risk across the organization.

C.

enable well-informed risk management decisions.

D.

identify stakeholders associated with risk scenarios.

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Questions 299

A department has been granted an exception to bypass the existing approval process for purchase orders. The risk practitioner should verify the exception has been approved by which of the following?

Options:

A.

Internal audit

B.

Control owner

C.

Senior management

D.

Risk manager

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Questions 300

The PRIMARY reason for establishing various Threshold levels for a set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:

Options:

A.

highlight trends of developing risk.

B.

ensure accurate and reliable monitoring.

C.

take appropriate actions in a timely manner.

D.

set different triggers for each stakeholder.

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Questions 301

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's risk management program has not reached the desired maturity level?

Options:

A.

Significant increases in risk mitigation budgets

B.

Large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments

C.

A steady increase in the time to recover from incidents

D.

A large number of control exceptions

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Questions 302

An organization has outsourced its lease payment process to a service provider who lacks evidence of compliance with a necessary regulatory standard. Which risk treatment was adopted by the organization?

Options:

A.

Acceptance

B.

Transfer

C.

Mitigation

D.

Avoidance

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Questions 303

Which of the following is the BEST approach for performing a business impact analysis (BIA) of a supply-chain management application?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the organization's policies and procedures

B.

Interviewing groups of key stakeholders

C.

Circulating questionnaires to key internal stakeholders

D.

Accepting IT personnel s view of business issues

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Questions 304

Which of the following can be used to assign a monetary value to risk?

Options:

A.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

B.

Business impact analysis

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Inherent vulnerabilities

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Questions 305

An internally developed payroll application leverages Platform as a Service (PaaS) infrastructure from the cloud. Who owns the related data confidentiality risk?

Options:

A.

IT infrastructure head

B.

Human resources head

C.

Supplier management head

D.

Application development head

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Questions 306

Which of the following is the MOST important data attribute of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

The data is measurable.

B.

The data is calculated continuously.

C.

The data is relevant.

D.

The data is automatically produced.

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Questions 307

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s FIRST course of action when an organization has decided to expand into new product areas?

Options:

A.

Identify any new business objectives with stakeholders.

B.

Present a business case for new controls to stakeholders.

C.

Revise the organization's risk and control policy.

D.

Review existing risk scenarios with stakeholders.

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Questions 308

A new regulator/ requirement imposes severe fines for data leakage involving customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). The risk practitioner has recommended avoiding the risk. Which of the following actions would BEST align with this recommendation?

Options:

A.

Reduce retention periods for Pll data.

B.

Move Pll to a highly-secured outsourced site.

C.

Modify business processes to stop collecting Pll.

D.

Implement strong encryption for Pll.

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Questions 309

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to create risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

To assist with risk identification

B.

To determine risk tolerance

C.

To determine risk appetite

D.

To assist in the development of risk responses

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Questions 310

Which of the following observations would be GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation status of management action plans?

Options:

A.

Management has not determined a final implementation date.

B.

Management has not completed an early mitigation milestone.

C.

Management has not secured resources for mitigation activities.

D.

Management has not begun the implementation.

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Questions 311

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to update when a software upgrade renders an existing key control ineffective?

Options:

A.

Audit engagement letter

B.

Risk profile

C.

IT risk register

D.

Change control documentation

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Questions 312

A risk practitioner has observed that risk owners have approved a high number of exceptions to the information security policy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Security policies are being reviewed infrequently.

B.

Controls are not operating efficiently.

C.

Vulnerabilities are not being mitigated

D.

Aggregate risk is approaching the tolerance threshold

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Questions 313

Which of the following is the PRIMARY consideration when establishing an organization's risk management methodology?

Options:

A.

Business context

B.

Risk tolerance level

C.

Resource requirements

D.

Benchmarking information

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Questions 314

Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for updating an organization's risk register?

Options:

A.

Results of the latest risk assessment

B.

Results of a risk forecasting analysis

C.

A review of compliance regulations

D.

Findings of the most recent audit

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Questions 315

Implementing which of the following controls would BEST reduce the impact of a vulnerability that has been exploited?

Options:

A.

Detective control

B.

Deterrent control

C.

Preventive control

D.

Corrective control

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Questions 316

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of a risk awareness training program?

Options:

A.

To enable risk-based decision making

B.

To promote awareness of the risk governance function

C.

To clarify fundamental risk management principles

D.

To ensure sufficient resources are available

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Questions 317

Following a significant change to a business process, a risk practitioner believes the associated risk has been reduced. The risk practitioner should advise the risk owner to FIRST

Options:

A.

review the key risk indicators.

B.

conduct a risk analysis.

C.

update the risk register

D.

reallocate risk response resources.

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Questions 318

A risk owner has identified a risk with high impact and very low likelihood. The potential loss is covered by insurance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Recommend avoiding the risk.

B.

Validate the risk response with internal audit.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Evaluate outsourcing the process.

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Questions 319

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organizations risk management program is effective?

Options:

A.

Fewer security incidents have been reported.

B.

The number of audit findings has decreased.

C.

Residual risk is reduced.

D.

inherent risk Is unchanged.

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Questions 320

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when identifying stakeholders to review risk scenarios developed by a risk analyst? The reviewers are:

Options:

A.

accountable for the affected processes.

B.

members of senior management.

C.

authorized to select risk mitigation options.

D.

independent from the business operations.

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Questions 321

A risk practitioner is reporting on an increasing trend of ransomware attacks in the industry. Which of the following information is MOST important to include to enable an informed response decision by key stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Methods of attack progression

B.

Losses incurred by industry peers

C.

Most recent antivirus scan reports

D.

Potential impact of events

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Questions 322

During a control review, the control owner states that an existing control has deteriorated over time. What is the BEST recommendation to the control owner?

Options:

A.

Implement compensating controls to reduce residual risk

B.

Escalate the issue to senior management

C.

Discuss risk mitigation options with the risk owner.

D.

Certify the control after documenting the concern.

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Questions 323

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to establish the root cause of an IT security incident?

Options:

A.

Update the risk register.

B.

Assign responsibility and accountability for the incident.

C.

Prepare a report for senior management.

D.

Avoid recurrence of the incident.

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Questions 324

Which of the following is a detective control?

Options:

A.

Limit check

B.

Periodic access review

C.

Access control software

D.

Rerun procedures

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Questions 325

Which of the following is the MOST effective way 10 identify an application backdoor prior to implementation'?

Options:

A.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Source code review

D.

Vulnerability analysis

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Questions 326

Which of the following is the BEST indication of the effectiveness of a business continuity program?

Options:

A.

Business continuity tests are performed successfully and issues are addressed.

B.

Business impact analyses are reviewed and updated in a timely manner.

C.

Business continuity and disaster recovery plans are regularly updated.

D.

Business units are familiar with the business continuity plans and process.

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Questions 327

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST when an organization decides to use a cloud service?

Options:

A.

Review the vendor selection process and vetting criteria.

B.

Assess whether use of service falls within risk tolerance thresholds.

C.

Establish service level agreements (SLAs) with the vendor.

D.

Check the contract for appropriate security risk and control provisions.

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Questions 328

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective for automating controls?

Options:

A.

Improving control process efficiency

B.

Facilitating continuous control monitoring

C.

Complying with functional requirements

D.

Reducing the need for audit reviews

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Questions 329

A key risk indicator (KRI) indicates a reduction in the percentage of appropriately patched servers. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Determine changes in the risk level.

B.

Outsource the vulnerability management process.

C.

Review the patch management process.

D.

Add agenda item to the next risk committee meeting.

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Questions 330

After mapping generic risk scenarios to organizational security policies, the NEXT course of action should be to:

Options:

A.

record risk scenarios in the risk register for analysis.

B.

validate the risk scenarios for business applicability.

C.

reduce the number of risk scenarios to a manageable set.

D.

perform a risk analysis on the risk scenarios.

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Questions 331

The risk associated with a high-risk vulnerability in an application is owned by the:

Options:

A.

security department.

B.

business unit

C.

vendor.

D.

IT department.

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Questions 332

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for determining how well an IT policy is aligned to business requirements?

Options:

A.

Total cost to support the policy

B.

Number of exceptions to the policy

C.

Total cost of policy breaches

D.

Number of inquiries regarding the policy

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Questions 333

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to ensure once a risk action plan has been completed?

Options:

A.

The risk owner has validated outcomes.

B.

The risk register has been updated.

C.

The control objectives are mapped to risk objectives.

D.

The requirements have been achieved.

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Questions 334

Which of the following would be the BEST justification to invest in the development of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) solution?

Options:

A.

Facilitating risk-aware decision making by stakeholders

B.

Demonstrating management commitment to mitigate risk

C.

Closing audit findings on a timely basis

D.

Ensuring compliance to industry standards

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Questions 335

A control owner has completed a year-long project To strengthen existing controls. It is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

Options:

A.

update the risk register to reflect the correct level of residual risk.

B.

ensure risk monitoring for the project is initiated.

C.

conduct and document a business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

verify cost-benefit of the new controls being implemented.

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Questions 336

Which of the following would provide the MOST objective assessment of the effectiveness of an organization's security controls?

Options:

A.

An internal audit

B.

Security operations center review

C.

Internal penetration testing

D.

A third-party audit

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Questions 337

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the use of data analytics?

Options:

A.

Distributed data sources

B.

Manual data extraction

C.

Incorrect data selection

D.

Excessive data volume

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Questions 338

Which of the following BEST reduces the probability of laptop theft?

Options:

A.

Cable lock

B.

Acceptable use policy

C.

Data encryption

D.

Asset tag with GPS

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Questions 339

An organization with a large number of applications wants to establish a security risk assessment program. Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when determining the frequency of risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Feedback from end users

B.

Results of a benchmark analysis

C.

Recommendations from internal audit

D.

Prioritization from business owners

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Questions 340

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure that information system controls are effective?

Options:

A.

Responding promptly to control exceptions

B.

Implementing compensating controls

C.

Testing controls periodically

D.

Automating manual controls

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Questions 341

Risk aggregation in a complex organization will be MOST successful when:

Options:

A.

using the same scales in assessing risk

B.

utilizing industry benchmarks

C.

using reliable qualitative data for risk Hems

D.

including primarily low-level risk factors

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Questions 342

A risk assessment has identified increased losses associated with an IT risk scenario. It is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

Options:

A.

update the risk rating.

B.

reevaluate inherent risk.

C.

develop new risk scenarios.

D.

implement additional controls.

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Questions 343

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when an organization uses a managed security service provider as a firewall administrator?

Options:

A.

Exposure of log data

B.

Lack of governance

C.

Increased number of firewall rules

D.

Lack of agreed-upon standards

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Questions 344

Who should be responsible for strategic decisions on risk management?

Options:

A.

Chief information officer (CIO)

B.

Executive management team

C.

Audit committee

D.

Business process owner

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Questions 345

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an independent review of a risk management process?

Options:

A.

Accuracy of risk tolerance levels

B.

Consistency of risk process results

C.

Participation of stakeholders

D.

Maturity of the process

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Questions 346

Read" rights to application files in a controlled server environment should be approved by the:

Options:

A.

business process owner.

B.

database administrator.

C.

chief information officer.

D.

systems administrator.

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Questions 347

A bank is experiencing an increasing incidence of customer identity theft. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate this risk?

Options:

A.

Implement monitoring techniques.

B.

Implement layered security.

C.

Outsource to a local processor.

D.

Conduct an awareness campaign.

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Questions 348

A recent internal risk review reveals the majority of core IT application recovery time objectives (RTOs) have exceeded the maximum time defined by the business application owners. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result?

Options:

A.

Risk forecasting

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 349

A risk practitioner shares the results of a vulnerability assessment for a critical business application with the business manager. Which of the following is the NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Develop a risk action plan to address the findings.

B.

Evaluate the impact of the vulnerabilities to the business application.

C.

Escalate the findings to senior management and internal audit.

D.

Conduct a penetration test to validate the vulnerabilities from the findings.

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Questions 350

A control owner identifies that the organization's shared drive contains personally identifiable information (Pll) that can be accessed by all personnel. Which of the following is the MOST effective risk response?

Options:

A.

Protect sensitive information with access controls.

B.

Implement a data loss prevention (DLP) solution.

C.

Re-communicate the data protection policy.

D.

Implement a data encryption solution.

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Questions 351

Controls should be defined during the design phase of system development because:

Options:

A.

it is more cost-effective to determine controls in the early design phase.

B.

structured analysis techniques exclude identification of controls.

C.

structured programming techniques require that controls be designed before coding begins.

D.

technical specifications are defined during this phase.

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Questions 352

Which of the following is MOST important to sustainable development of secure IT services?

Options:

A.

Security training for systems development staff

B.

\Well-documented business cases

C.

Security architecture principles

D.

Secure coding practices

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Questions 353

Which of the following is the BEST method for identifying vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Batch job failure monitoring

B.

Periodic network scanning

C.

Annual penetration testing

D.

Risk assessments

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Questions 354

An organization wants to grant remote access to a system containing sensitive data to an overseas third party. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to management?

Options:

A.

Transborder data transfer restrictions

B.

Differences in regional standards

C.

Lack of monitoring over vendor activities

D.

Lack of after-hours incident management support

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Questions 355

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Understanding and prioritization of critical processes

B.

Completion of the business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Identification of regulatory consequences

D.

Reduction of security and business continuity threats

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Questions 356

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining whether to accept residual risk after security controls have been implemented on a critical system?

Options:

A.

Cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls

B.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) for the system

C.

Frequency of business impact

D.

Cost of the Information control system

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Questions 357

A monthly payment report is generated from the enterprise resource planning (ERP) software to validate data against the old and new payroll systems. What is the BEST way to mitigate the risk associated with data integrity loss in the new payroll system after data migration?

Options:

A.

Compare new system reports with functional requirements.

B.

Compare encrypted data with checksums.

C.

Compare results of user acceptance testing (UAT) with the testing criteria.

D.

Compare processing output from both systems using the previous month's data.

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Questions 358

Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST when establishing IT risk management processes?

Options:

A.

Collect data of past incidents and lessons learned.

B.

Conduct a high-level risk assessment based on the nature of business.

C.

Identify the risk appetite of the organization.

D.

Assess the goals and culture of the organization.

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Questions 359

Which of the following is MOST helpful to review when identifying risk scenarios associated with the adoption of Internet of Things (loT) technology in an organization?

Options:

A.

The business case for the use of loT

B.

The loT threat landscape

C.

Policy development for loT

D.

The network that loT devices can access

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Questions 360

A risk practitioner is reviewing the status of an action plan to mitigate an emerging IT risk and finds the risk level has increased. The BEST course of action would be to:

Options:

A.

implement the planned controls and accept the remaining risk.

B.

suspend the current action plan in order to reassess the risk.

C.

revise the action plan to include additional mitigating controls.

D.

evaluate whether selected controls are still appropriate.

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Questions 361

An organization has introduced risk ownership to establish clear accountability for each process. To ensure effective risk ownership, it is MOST important that:

Options:

A.

senior management has oversight of the process.

B.

process ownership aligns with IT system ownership.

C.

segregation of duties exists between risk and process owners.

D.

risk owners have decision-making authority.

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Questions 362

What is MOST important for the risk practitioner to understand when creating an initial IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

Control environment

C.

IT objectives

D.

Organizational objectives

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Questions 363

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability remediation program is the number of:

Options:

A.

vulnerability scans.

B.

recurring vulnerabilities.

C.

vulnerabilities remediated,

D.

new vulnerabilities identified.

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Questions 364

An organization's financial analysis department uses an in-house forecasting application for business projections. Who is responsible for defining access roles to protect the sensitive data within this application?

Options:

A.

IT risk manager

B.

IT system owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Business owner

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Questions 365

A payroll manager discovers that fields in certain payroll reports have been modified without authorization. Which of the following control weaknesses could have contributed MOST to this problem?

Options:

A.

The user requirements were not documented.

B.

Payroll files were not under the control of a librarian.

C.

The programmer had access to the production programs.

D.

The programmer did not involve the user in testing.

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Questions 366

Which of the following is the MOST important information to be communicated during security awareness training?

Options:

A.

Management's expectations

B.

Corporate risk profile

C.

Recent security incidents

D.

The current risk management capability

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Questions 367

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge for an IT risk practitioner who wants to report on trends in historical IT risk levels?

Options:

A.

Qualitative measures for potential loss events

B.

Changes in owners for identified IT risk scenarios

C.

Changes in methods used to calculate probability

D.

Frequent use of risk acceptance as a treatment option

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Questions 368

An organization has identified that terminated employee accounts are not disabled or deleted within the time required by corporate policy. Unsure of the reason, the organization has decided to monitor the situation for three months to obtain more information. As a result of this decision, the risk has been:

Options:

A.

avoided.

B.

accepted.

C.

mitigated.

D.

transferred.

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Questions 369

A maturity model will BEST indicate:

Options:

A.

confidentiality and integrity.

B.

effectiveness and efficiency.

C.

availability and reliability.

D.

certification and accreditation.

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Questions 370

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk mitigation plans have been implemented effectively?

Options:

A.

Self-assessments by process owners

B.

Mitigation plan progress reports

C.

Risk owner attestation

D.

Change in the level of residual risk

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Questions 371

To help ensure all applicable risk scenarios are incorporated into the risk register, it is MOST important to review the:

Options:

A.

risk mitigation approach

B.

cost-benefit analysis.

C.

risk assessment results.

D.

vulnerability assessment results

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Questions 372

Quantifying the value of a single asset helps the organization to understand the:

Options:

A.

overall effectiveness of risk management

B.

consequences of risk materializing

C.

necessity of developing a risk strategy,

D.

organization s risk threshold.

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Questions 373

A risk owner has accepted a high-impact risk because the control was adversely affecting process efficiency. Before updating the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

Options:

A.

ensure suitable insurance coverage is purchased.

B.

negotiate with the risk owner on control efficiency.

C.

reassess the risk to confirm the impact.

D.

obtain approval from senior management.

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Questions 374

Which of the following would be MOST relevant to stakeholders regarding ineffective control implementation?

Options:

A.

Threat to IT

B.

Number of control failures

C.

Impact on business

D.

Risk ownership

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Questions 375

What should be the PRIMARY objective for a risk practitioner performing a post-implementation review of an IT risk mitigation project?

Options:

A.

Documenting project lessons learned

B.

Validating the risk mitigation project has been completed

C.

Confirming that the project budget was not exceeded

D.

Verifying that the risk level has been lowered

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Questions 376

IT stakeholders have asked a risk practitioner for IT risk profile reports associated with specific departments to allocate resources for risk mitigation. The BEST way to address this request would be to use:

Options:

A.

the cost associated with each control.

B.

historical risk assessments.

C.

key risk indicators (KRls).

D.

information from the risk register.

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Questions 377

Which of the following statements BEST describes risk appetite?

Options:

A.

The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept

B.

The effective management of risk and internal control environments

C.

Acceptable variation between risk thresholds and business objectives

D.

The acceptable variation relative to the achievement of objectives

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Questions 378

Which of the following is MOST important for developing effective key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Engaging sponsorship by senior management

B.

Utilizing data and resources internal to the organization

C.

Including input from risk and business unit management

D.

Developing in collaboration with internal audit

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Questions 379

An organization has been made aware of a newly discovered critical vulnerability in a regulatory reporting system. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Perform an impact assessment.

B.

Perform a penetration test.

C.

Request an external audit.

D.

Escalate the risk to senior management.

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Questions 380

An organization's risk practitioner learns a new third-party system on the corporate network has introduced vulnerabilities that could compromise corporate IT systems. What should the risk practitioner do

FIRST?

Options:

A.

Confirm the vulnerabilities with the third party

B.

Identify procedures to mitigate the vulnerabilities.

C.

Notify information security management.

D.

Request IT to remove the system from the network.

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Questions 381

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Assigning a data owner

B.

Scheduling periodic audits

C.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

D.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

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Questions 382

Which of the following is MOST likely to introduce risk for financial institutions that use blockchain?

Options:

A.

Cost of implementation

B.

Implementation of unproven applications

C.

Disruption to business processes

D.

Increase in attack surface area

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Questions 383

Which of the following is the MOST important success factor when introducing risk management in an organization?

Options:

A.

Implementing a risk register

B.

Defining a risk mitigation strategy and plan

C.

Assigning risk ownership

D.

Establishing executive management support

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Questions 384

Which of the following is MOST important for managing ethical risk?

Options:

A.

Involving senior management in resolving ethical disputes

B.

Developing metrics to trend reported ethics violations

C.

Identifying the ethical concerns of each stakeholder

D.

Establishing a code of conduct for employee behavior

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Questions 385

A risk assessment has revealed that the probability of a successful cybersecurity attack is increasing. The potential loss could exceed the organization's risk appetite. Which of the following ould be the MOST effective course of action?

Options:

A.

Re-evaluate the organization's risk appetite.

B.

Outsource the cybersecurity function.

C.

Purchase cybersecurity insurance.

D.

Review cybersecurity incident response procedures.

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Questions 386

Which of the following management actions will MOST likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario related to remote network access?

Options:

A.

Creating metrics to track remote connections

B.

Updating the organizational policy for remote access

C.

Updating remote desktop software

D.

Implementing multi-factor authentication

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Questions 387

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the value of information assets for risk management purposes?

Options:

A.

Assess the loss impact if the information is inadvertently disclosed.

B.

Calculate the overhead required to keep the information secure throughout its life cycle.

C.

Calculate the replacement cost of obtaining the information from alternate sources.

D.

Assess the market value offered by consumers of the information.

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Questions 388

Within the three lines of defense model, the PRIMARY responsibility for ensuring risk mitigation controls are properly configured belongs with:

Options:

A.

line management.

B.

the IT risk function.

C.

enterprise compliance.

D.

internal audit.

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Questions 389

Which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to cause a risk practitioner to request a formal risk acceptance sign-off?

Options:

A.

Residual risk in excess of the risk appetite cannot be mitigated.

B.

Inherent risk is too high, resulting in the cancellation of an initiative.

C.

Risk appetite has changed to align with organizational objectives.

D.

Residual risk remains at the same level over time without further mitigation.

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Questions 390

Which of the following BEST enables the development of a successful IT strategy focused on business risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Providing risk awareness training for business units

B.

Obtaining input from business management

C.

Understanding the business controls currently in place

D.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 391

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation regarding disaster recovery management (DRM) for Software as a Service (SaaS) providers?

Options:

A.

Conduct inoremental backups of data in the SaaS environment to a local data center.

B.

Implement segregation of duties between multiple SaaS solution providers.

C.

Codify availability requirements in the SaaS provider's contract.

D.

Conduct performance benchmarking against other SaaS service providers.

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Questions 392

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the ability to deliver uninterrupted IT services?

Options:

A.

Mean time between failures (MTBF)

B.

Mean time to recover (MTTR)

C.

Planned downtime

D.

Unplanned downtime

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Questions 393

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with inappropriate classification of data?

Options:

A.

Inaccurate record management data

B.

Inaccurate recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Lack of accountability for data ownership

D.

Users having unauthorized access to data

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Questions 394

An organizational policy requires critical security patches to be deployed in production within three weeks of patch availability. Which of the following is the BEST metric to verify adherence to the policy?

Options:

A.

Maximum time gap between patch availability and deployment

B.

Percentage of critical patches deployed within three weeks

C.

Minimum time gap between patch availability and deployment

D.

Number of critical patches deployed within three weeks

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Questions 395

Which of the following should be done FIRST when a new risk scenario has been identified

Options:

A.

Estimate the residual risk.

B.

Establish key risk indicators (KRIs).

C.

Design control improvements.

D.

Identify the risk owner.

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Questions 396

A risk practitioner notes control design changes when comparing risk response to a previously approved action plan. Which of the following is MOST important for the practitioner to confirm?

Options:

A.

Appropriate approvals for the control changes

B.

The reason the action plan was modified

C.

The risk owner's approval of the revised action plan

D.

The effectiveness of the resulting control

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Questions 397

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the user access management process?

Options:

A.

Proportion of end users having more than one account

B.

Percentage of accounts disabled within the service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Proportion of privileged to non-privileged accounts

D.

Percentage of accounts that have not been activated

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Questions 398

Which of the following will BEST help to improve an organization's risk culture?

Options:

A.

Maintaining a documented risk register

B.

Establishing a risk awareness program

C.

Rewarding employees for reporting security incidents

D.

Allocating resources for risk remediation

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Questions 399

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input to determine risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements

B.

Organizational objectives

C.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Risk management costs

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Questions 400

Which of the following is the MOST important course of action for a risk practitioner when reviewing the results of control performance monitoring?

Options:

A.

Evaluate changes to the organization's risk profile.

B.

Validate whether the controls effectively mitigate risk.

C.

Confirm controls achieve regulatory compliance.

D.

Analyze appropriateness of key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Questions 401

An organization uses a biometric access control system for authentication and access to its server room. Which control type has been implemented?

Options:

A.

Detective.

B.

Deterrent.

C.

Preventive.

D.

Corrective.

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Questions 402

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register

C.

Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Developing contingency plans for key processes

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Questions 403

The PRIMARY reason to implement a formalized risk taxonomy is to:

Options:

A.

reduce subjectivity in risk management.

B.

comply with regulatory requirements.

C.

demonstrate best industry practice.

D.

improve visibility of overall risk exposure.

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Questions 404

Which of the following should be the FIRST course of action if the risk associated with a new technology is found to be increasing?

Options:

A.

Re-evaluate current controls.

B.

Revise the current risk action plan.

C.

Escalate the risk to senior management.

D.

Implement additional controls.

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Questions 405

Which of the following emerging technologies is frequently used for botnet distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks?

Options:

A.

Internet of Things (IoT)

B.

Quantum computing

C.

Virtual reality (VR)

D.

Machine learning

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Questions 406

An organization’s board of directors is concerned about recent data breaches in the news and wants to assess its exposure to similar scenarios. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the organization's existing data protection controls.

B.

Reassess the risk appetite and tolerance levels of the business.

C.

Evaluate the sensitivity of data that the business needs to handle.

D.

Review the organization’s data retention policy and regulatory requirements.

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Questions 407

An organization has updated its acceptable use policy to mitigate the risk of employees disclosing confidential information. Which of the following is the BEST way to reinforce the effectiveness of this policy?

Options:

A.

Communicate sanctions for policy violations to all staff.

B.

Obtain signed acceptance of the new policy from employees.

C.

Train all staff on relevant information security best practices.

D.

Implement data loss prevention (DLP) within the corporate network.

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Questions 408

An organization recently implemented an automated interface for uploading payment files to its banking system to replace manual processing. Which of the following elements of the risk register is MOST appropriate for the risk practitioner to update to reflect the improved control?

Options:

A.

Risk scenarios

B.

Risk ownership

C.

Risk impact

D.

Risk likelihood

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Questions 409

A MAJOR advantage of using key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they:

Options:

A.

Identify scenarios that exceed defined risk appetite.

B.

Help with internal control assessments concerning risk appetite.

C.

Assess risk scenarios that exceed defined thresholds.

D.

Identify when risk exceeds defined thresholds.

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Questions 410

An assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite.

B.

Request a formal acceptance of risk from senior management.

C.

Report the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report.

D.

Deploy a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies.

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Questions 411

A penetration test reveals several vulnerabilities in a web-facing application. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in selecting a risk response?

Options:

A.

Correct the vulnerabilities to mitigate potential risk exposure.

B.

Develop a risk response action plan with key stakeholders.

C.

Assess the level of risk associated with the vulnerabilities.

D.

Communicate the vulnerabilities to the risk owner.

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Questions 412

Who is BEST suited to provide information to the risk practitioner about the effectiveness of a technical control associated with an application?

Options:

A.

System owner

B.

Internal auditor

C.

Process owner

D.

Risk owner

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Questions 413

Which of the following BEST enables senior management lo compare the ratings of risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

D.

Risk heat map

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Questions 414

A risk practitioner wants to identify potential risk events that affect the continuity of a critical business process. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Evaluate current risk management alignment with relevant regulations.

B.

Determine if business continuity procedures are reviewed and updated on a regular basis.

C.

Review the methodology used to conduct the business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

Conduct a benchmarking exercise against industry peers.

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Questions 415

The cost of maintaining a control has grown to exceed the potential loss. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

Options:

A.

Insufficient risk tolerance

B.

Optimized control management

C.

Effective risk management

D.

Over-controlled environment

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Questions 416

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when prioritizing risk response?

Options:

A.

Requirements for regulatory obligations.

B.

Cost of control implementation.

C.

Effectiveness of risk treatment.

D.

Number of risk response options.

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Questions 417

Which of the following is MOST important to include when reporting the effectiveness of risk management to senior management?

Options:

A.

Changes in the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance levels

B.

Impact due to changes in external and internal risk factors

C.

Changes in residual risk levels against acceptable levels

D.

Gaps in best practices and implemented controls across the industry

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Questions 418

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to address risk associated with technical complexity?

Options:

A.

Documenting system hardening requirements

B.

Minimizing dependency on technology

C.

Aligning with a security architecture

D.

Establishing configuration guidelines

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Questions 419

Who is accountable for authorizing application access in a cloud Software as a Service (SaaS) solution?

Options:

A.

Cloud service provider

B.

IT department

C.

Senior management

D.

Business unit owner

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Questions 420

Which of the following risk impacts should be the PRIMARY consideration for determining recovery priorities in a disaster recovery situation?

Options:

A.

Data security

B.

Recovery costs

C.

Business disruption

D.

Recovery resource availability

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Questions 421

An organization wants to transfer risk by purchasing cyber insurance. Which of the following would be MOST important for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management for contract negotiation purposes?

Options:

A.

Most recent IT audit report results

B.

Replacement cost of IT assets

C.

Current annualized loss expectancy report

D.

Cyber insurance industry benchmarking report

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Questions 422

An organization needs to send files to a business partner to perform a quality control audit on the organization’s record-keeping processes. The files include personal information on the organization's customers. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to mitigate privacy risk?

Options:

A.

Obfuscate the customers’ personal information.

B.

Require the business partner to delete personal information following the audit.

C.

Use a secure channel to transmit the files.

D.

Ensure the contract includes provisions for sharing personal information.

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Questions 423

An organization is subject to a new regulation that requires nearly real-time recovery of its services following a disruption. Which of the following is the BEST way to manage the risk in this situation?

Options:

A.

Move redundant IT infrastructure to a closer location.

B.

Obtain insurance and ensure sufficient funds are available for disaster recovery.

C.

Review the business continuity plan (BCP) and align it with the new business needs.

D.

Outsource disaster recovery services to a third-party IT service provider.

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Questions 424

The BEST way for an organization to ensure that servers are compliant to security policy is

to review:

Options:

A.

change logs.

B.

configuration settings.

C.

server access logs.

D.

anti-malware compliance.

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Questions 425

An organization has adopted an emerging technology without following proper processes. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action to address this risk?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk because the technology has already been adopted.

B.

Propose a transfer of risk to a third party with subsequent monitoring.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment to determine risk exposure.

D.

Recommend to senior management to decommission the technology.

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Questions 426

An organization has contracted with a cloud service provider to support the deployment of a new product. Of the following, who should own the associated risk?

Options:

A.

The head of enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

The IT risk manager

C.

The information security manager

D.

The product owner

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Questions 427

Which group has PRIMARY ownership of reputational risk stemming from unethical behavior within the organization?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Human resources (HR)

C.

Risk management committee

D.

Audit committee

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Questions 428

Which of the following would BEST prevent an unscheduled application of a patch?

Options:

A.

Network-based access controls

B.

Compensating controls

C.

Segregation of duties

D.

Change management

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Questions 429

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE goal of conducting a privacy impact analysis (PIA)?

Options:

A.

To identify gaps in data protection controls

B.

To develop a customer notification plan

C.

To identify personally identifiable information (Pll)

D.

To determine gaps in data identification processes

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Questions 430

Which of the following roles should be assigned accountability for monitoring risk levels?

Options:

A.

Risk practitioner

B.

Business manager

C.

Risk owner

D.

Control owner

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Questions 431

During a post-implementation review for a new system, users voiced concerns about missing functionality. Which of the following is the BEST way for the organization to avoid this situation in the future?

Options:

A.

Test system reliability and performance.

B.

Adopt an Agile development approach.

C.

Conduct user acceptance testing (UAT).

D.

Adopt a phased changeover approach.

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Questions 432

Which of the following is the BEST method for determining an enterprise's current appetite for risk?

Options:

A.

Comparative analysis of peer companies

B.

Reviews of brokerage firm assessments

C.

Interviews with senior management

D.

Trend analysis using prior annual reports

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Questions 433

Which of the following BEST helps to mitigate risk associated with excessive access by authorized users?

Options:

A.

Monitoring user activity using security logs

B.

Revoking access for users changing roles

C.

Granting access based on least privilege

D.

Conducting periodic reviews of authorizations granted

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Questions 434

Which of the following scenarios presents the GREATEST risk of noncompliance with data privacy best practices?

Options:

A.

Making data available to a larger audience of customers

B.

Data not being disposed according to the retention policy

C.

Personal data not being de-identified properly

D.

Data being used for purposes the data subjects have not opted into

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Questions 435

An online payment processor would be severely impacted if the fraud detection system has an outage. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this risk?

Options:

A.

Implement continuous control monitoring.

B.

Communicate the risk to management.

C.

Introduce recovery control procedures.

D.

Document a risk response plan.

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Questions 436

Which of the following stakeholders define risk tolerance for an enterprise?

Options:

A.

IT compliance and IT audit

B.

Regulators and shareholders

C.

The board and executive management

D.

Enterprise risk management (ERM)

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Questions 437

When assessing the maturity level of an organization’s risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods.

B.

Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool.

C.

Lack of senior management involvement.

D.

Use of multiple risk registers.

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Questions 438

Which of the following BEST prevents control gaps in the Zero Trust model when implementing in the environment?

Options:

A.

Relying on multiple solutions for Zero Trust

B.

Utilizing rapid development during implementation

C.

Establishing a robust technical architecture

D.

Starting with a large initial scope

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Questions 439

Which of the following scenarios is MOST important to communicate to senior management?

Options:

A.

Accepted risk scenarios with detailed plans for monitoring

B.

Risk scenarios that have been shared with vendors and third parties

C.

Accepted risk scenarios with impact exceeding the risk tolerance

D.

Risk scenarios that have been identified, assessed, and responded to by the risk owners

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Questions 440

Which of the following BEST indicates the effective implementation of a risk treatment plan?

Options:

A.

Inherent risk is managed within an acceptable level.

B.

Residual risk is managed within appetite and tolerance.

C.

Risk treatments are aligned with industry peers.

D.

Key controls are identified and documented.

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Questions 441

During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.

B.

Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.

C.

Implement key control indicators (KCIs).

D.

Escalate the control failures to senior management.

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Questions 442

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the risk of using Internet of Things (loT) devices to collect and process personally identifiable information (Pll)?

Options:

A.

Costs and benefits

B.

Local laws and regulations

C.

Security features and support

D.

Business strategies and needs

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Questions 443

Which of the following is MOST useful input when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Common attacks in other industries

B.

Identification of risk events

C.

Impact on critical assets

D.

Probability of disruptive risk events

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Questions 444

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern related to the monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Logs are retained for longer than required.

B.

Logs are reviewed annually.

C.

Logs are stored in a multi-tenant cloud environment.

D.

Logs are modified before analysis is conducted.

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Questions 445

It was discovered that a service provider's administrator was accessing sensitive information without the approval of the customer in an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) model. Which of the following would BEST protect against a future recurrence?

Options:

A.

Data encryption

B.

Intrusion prevention system (IPS)

C.

Two-factor authentication

D.

Contractual requirements

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Questions 446

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk associated with fraudulent use of an enterprise's brand on Internet sites?

Options:

A.

Utilizing data loss prevention (DLP) technology

B.

Monitoring the enterprise's use of the Internet

C.

Scanning the Internet to search for unauthorized usage

D.

Developing training and awareness campaigns

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Questions 447

Because of a potential data breach, an organization has decided to temporarily shut down its online sales order system until sufficient controls can be implemented. Which risk treatment has been selected?

Options:

A.

Avoidance

B.

Transfer

C.

Mitigation

D.

Acceptance

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Questions 448

Which of the following is the MOST important document regarding the treatment of sensitive data?

Options:

A.

Organization risk profile

B.

Information classification policy

C.

Encryption policy

D.

Digital rights management policy

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Questions 449

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line of defense?

Options:

A.

Providing assurance of control effectiveness

B.

Implementing internal controls

C.

Monitoring risk responses

D.

Applying risk treatments

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Questions 450

When reporting to senior management on changes in trends related to IT risk, which of the following is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Materiality

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Maturity

D.

Transparency

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Questions 451

Risk mitigation is MOST effective when which of the following is optimized?

Options:

A.

Operational risk

B.

Residual risk

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Regulatory risk

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Questions 452

An organization has established a single enterprise-wide risk register that records high-level risk scenarios. The IT risk department has created its own register to record more granular scenarios applicable to IT. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure alignment between these two registers?

Options:

A.

Map the granular risk scenarios to the high-level risk register items.

B.

List application and server vulnerabilities in the IT risk register.

C.

Identify overlapping risk scenarios between the two registers.

D.

Maintain both high-level and granular risk scenarios in a single register.

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Questions 453

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action upon learning that regulatory authorities have concerns with an emerging technology the organization is considering?

Options:

A.

Redesign key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Update risk responses.

C.

Conduct a SWOT analysis.

D.

Perform a threat assessment.

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Questions 454

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence to support conclusions after completing an information systems controls assessment?

Options:

A.

Risk and control self-assessment (CSA) reports

B.

Information generated by the systems

C.

Control environment narratives

D.

Confirmation from industry peers

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Questions 455

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that robust risk management practices are in place within an organization?

Options:

A.

A management-approved risk dashboard

B.

A current control framework

C.

A regularly updated risk register

D.

Regularly updated risk management procedures

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Questions 456

An organization's capability to implement a risk management framework is PRIMARILY influenced by the:

Options:

A.

guidance of the risk practitioner.

B.

competence of the staff involved.

C.

approval of senior management.

D.

maturity of its risk culture.

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Questions 457

The MOST important measure of the effectiveness of risk management in project implementation is the percentage of projects:

Options:

A.

introduced into production without high-risk issues.

B.

having the risk register updated regularly.

C.

having key risk indicators (KRIs) established to measure risk.

D.

having an action plan to remediate overdue issues.

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Questions 458

If concurrent update transactions to an account are not processed properly, which of the following will MOST likely be affected?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Accountability

C.

Availability

D.

Integrity

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Questions 459

Senior management has requested more information regarding the risk associated with introducing a new application into the environment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Perform an audit.

B.

Conduct a risk analysis.

C.

Develop risk scenarios.

D.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

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Questions 460

What is the MOST important consideration when selecting key performance indicators (KPIs) for control monitoring?

Options:

A.

Source information is acquired at stable cost.

B.

Source information is tailored by removing outliers.

C.

Source information is readily quantifiable.

D.

Source information is consistently available.

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Questions 461

A hospital recently implemented a new technology to allow virtual patient appointments. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Reassess the risk profile.

B.

Modify the risk taxonomy.

C.

Increase the risk tolerance.

D.

Review the risk culture.

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Questions 462

Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a key risk indicator (KRI) to exceed thresholds?

Options:

A.

The risk tolerance level

B.

Occurrences of specific events

C.

Risk scenarios

D.

A performance measurement

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Questions 463

Which of the following is MOST important to update following a change in organizational risk appetite and tolerance?

Options:

A.

Business impact assessment (BIA)

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Risk profile

D.

Industry benchmark analysis

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Questions 464

When assigning control ownership, it is MOST important to verify that the owner has accountability for:

Options:

A.

Control effectiveness.

B.

The budget for control implementation.

C.

Assessment of control risk.

D.

Internal control audits.

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Questions 465

Which of the following proposed benefits is MOST likely to influence senior management approval to reallocate budget for a new security initiative?

Options:

A.

Reduction in the number of incidents

B.

Reduction in inherent risk

C.

Reduction in residual risk

D.

Reduction in the number of known vulnerabilities

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Questions 466

An organization is moving its critical assets to the cloud. Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to include in the service level agreement (SLA)?

Options:

A.

Percentage of standard supplier uptime

B.

Average time to respond to incidents

C.

Number of assets included in recovery processes

D.

Number of key applications hosted

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Questions 467

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using a risk profile?

Options:

A.

It promotes a security-aware culture.

B.

It enables vulnerability analysis.

C.

It enhances internal risk reporting.

D.

It provides risk information to auditors.

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Questions 468

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner’s GREATEST concern related to the monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Logs are retained for longer than required.

B.

Logs are reviewed annually.

C.

Logs are stored in a multi-tenant cloud environment.

D.

Logs are modified before analysis is conducted.

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Questions 469

A risk practitioner learns that a risk owner has been accepting gifts from a supplier of IT products. Some of these IT products are used to implement controls and to mitigate risk to acceptable levels. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Initiate disciplinary action against the risk owner.

B.

Reassess the risk and review the underlying controls.

C.

Review organizational ethics policies.

D.

Report the activity to the supervisor.

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Questions 470

After conducting a risk assessment for regulatory compliance, an organization has identified only one possible mitigating control. The cost of the control has been determined to be higher than the penalty of noncompliance. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk with management sign-off.

B.

Ignore the risk until the regulatory body conducts a compliance check.

C.

Mitigate the risk with the identified control.

D.

Transfer the risk by buying insurance.

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Questions 471

Which of the following observations from a third-party service provider review would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Service level agreements (SLAs) have not been met over the last quarter.

B.

The service contract is up for renewal in less than thirty days.

C.

Key third-party personnel have recently been replaced.

D.

Monthly service charges are significantly higher than industry norms.

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Questions 472

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a disaster recovery management (DRM) framework and related processes?

Options:

A.

Restoring IT and cybersecurity operations

B.

Assessing the impact and probability of disaster scenarios

C.

Ensuring timely recovery of critical business operations

D.

Determining capacity for alternate sites

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Questions 473

The BEST way to validate that a risk treatment plan has been implemented effectively is by reviewing:

Options:

A.

results of a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

the original risk response plan.

C.

training program and user awareness documentation.

D.

a post-implementation risk and control self-assessment (RCSA).

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Questions 474

An organization's Internet-facing server was successfully attacked because the server did not have the latest security patches. The risk associated with poor patch management had been documented in the risk register and accepted. Who should be accountable for any related losses to the organization?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

IT risk manager

C.

Server administrator

D.

Risk practitioner

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Exam Code: CRISC
Exam Name: Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Last Update: Dec 22, 2024
Questions: 1583

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