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350-401 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (350-401 ENCOR) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

In a wireless network environment, what is calculated using the numencal values of the transmitter power level, cable loss, and antenna gain?

Options:

A.

EIRP

B.

RSSI

C.

SNR

D.

bBi

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Questions 5

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer deploys a script to retrieve the running configuration from a NETCONF-capable Cisco IOS XE device that is configured with default settings. The script fails. Which configuration must be applied to retrieve the configurauon using NETCONF?

Options:

A.

Print (netconf_host.get_config('show running'!)

B.

hostkey_verify=True,

C.

device_params={name':'ios-xe'})

D.

port=830

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Questions 6

OR

OR

OR

Options:

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Questions 7

Refer to the exhibit. An SSID is configured and both clients can reach their gateways on the Layer 3 switch, but they cannot communicate with each other. Which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Set the P2P Blocking Action to Forward-UpStream.

B.

Set the WMM Policy to Allowed.

C.

Set the P2P Blocking Action to Disabled.

D.

Set the WMM Policy to Required

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Questions 8

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer applies this configuration to R1:

ip nat inside source static 192.168.10.17 192.168.27.42

Which command set should be added to complete the configuration?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 9

Which two operational modes enables an AP to scan one or more wireless channels for rogue access points and at the same time provide wireless services to clients? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

sniffer

B.

FlexConnect

C.

rogue detector

D.

monitor

E.

local

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Questions 10

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must collect basic statistics about the approximate amount of IPv4 and IPv6 flows entering Gi0/0 using NetFlow. However, the administrator is concerned that NetFlow processing during periods of high utilization on Gi0/0 will overwhelm the router CPU Which configuration minimizes CPU impact and keeps the data flows across Gi0/0 Intact?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 11

How does a Type 1 hypervisor function?

Options:

A.

It runs directly on a physical server and depends on a previously installed operating system.

B.

It runs directly on a physical server and includes its own operating system.

C.

It runs on a virtual server and depends on a previously installed operating systems

D.

It runs on a virtual server and includes its own operating system.

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Questions 12

What is a characteristic of a traditional WAN?

Options:

A.

low complexity and high overall solution scale

B.

centralized reachability, security, and application policies

C.

operates over DTLS and TLS authenticated and secured tunnels

D.

united data plane and control plane

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Questions 13

Refer to the exhibit.

Clients are reporting an issue with the voice traffic from the branch site to the central site. What is the cause of this issue?

Options:

A.

The voice traffic is using the link with less available bandwidth.

B.

There is a routing loop on the network.

C.

Traffic is load-balancing over both links, causing packets to arrive out of order.

D.

There is a high delay on the WAN links.

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Questions 14

An engineer must configure a new WLAN 802.11r and requires users to enter a passphrase. What must be configured to support this requirement?

Options:

A.

802.1X and Fast Transition

B.

FT PSK and Fast Transition

C.

802.1X and SUITEB-1X

D.

FT PSK and SUITEB-1X

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Questions 15

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is creating a Pytnon script to fetch the BGP configuration from a device using RESTCONF. What does the output Indicate?

Options:

A.

The BGP data resource identifier in the URL Incorrect.

B.

There is no BGP process running on the device

C.

RESTCONF is not enabled on the device.

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Questions 16

What is a characteristic of the Cisco DMA Center Template Editor feature?

Options:

A.

It facilitates software upgrades lo network devices from a central point.

B.

It facilitates a vulnerability assessment of the network devices.

C.

It provides a high-level overview of the health of every network device.

D.

It uses a predefined configuration through parameterized elements or variables.

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Questions 17

Refer to the exhibit.

Which antenna emits this radiation pattern?

Options:

A.

omnidirectional

B.

Yagi

C.

RP-TNC

D.

dish

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Questions 18

Which two actions are recommended as security best practices to protect REST API? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Use a password hash

B.

Use SSL for encryption

C.

Enable dual authentication of the session

D.

Use TACACS+ authentication

E.

Enableout-of-band authentication

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Questions 19

What is a characteristics of an AP operating in FlexConnect mode?

Options:

A.

All traffic traverses the WLC to ensure policy enforcement on client traffic .

B.

Forwarding for locally switched traffic continues when the AP loses connectivity to the WLC.

C.

APs connect in a mesh topology and elect a root AP.

D.

FlexConnect enables an Ap to connect to multiple WLCs.

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Questions 20

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to ensure that the preferred path for traffic from AS 65010 toward AS 65020 uses the R2 to R4 path?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 21

Which two mechanisms are used with OAuth 2.0 for enhanced validation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

custom headers

B.

authentication

C.

authorization

D.

request management

E.

accounting

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Questions 22

What is a benefit of yang?

Options:

A.

It enforces configuration constraints.

B.

It enables multiple leaf statements to exist within a leaf list.

C.

It enforces the use of a specific encoding format for NETCONF.

D.

It collects statistical constraint analysis information.

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Questions 23

What is one being of implementinga datamodetag language?

Options:

A.

accuracy of the operations performed

B.

uses XML style of data formatting

C.

machine-oriented logic and language-facilitated processing.

D.

conceptual representation to simplify interpretation.

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Questions 24

Which two functions is an edge node responsible for? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

provides multiple entry and exit points for fabric traffic

B.

provides the default exit point for fabric traffic

C.

provides the default entry point for fabric traffic

D.

provides a host database that maps endpoint IDs to a current location

E.

authenticates endpoints

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Questions 25

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 12 use?

Options:

A.

00 5e0c:07:ac:12

B.

05:44:33:83:68:6c

C.

00:00:0c:07:ac:0c

D.

00:05:5e:00:0c:12

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Questions 26

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20?

Options:

A.

spanning-tree mst 1 priority 1

B.

spanning-tree mst 1 root primary

C.

spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary

D.

spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority root

E.

spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096

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Questions 27

Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations enable R1 and R2 to advertise routes into OSPF? (Choose two)

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E) Option E

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Questions 28

Refer to the exhibit. The DevOps team noticed missing NetFlow data during peak utilization times for remote branches. Which configuration allows for this issue to be minimized or resolved?

Options:

A.

Configure NetFlow on the in and outbound directions.

B.

Change the transport type from UDP to TCP.

C.

Configure long byte counters when specifying a flow record.

D.

Change the flow monitor to IPv6 from IPv4.

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Questions 29

In a campus network design, what ate two benefits of using BFD tor failure detection? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

BFD provides path failure detection in less than a second.

B.

BFD is an efficient way to reduce memory and CPU usage.

C.

BFD provides fault tolerance by enabling multiple routers to appear as a single virtual router.

D.

BFD speeds up routing convergence time.

E.

BFD enables network peers to continue forwarding packets in the event of a restart.

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Questions 30

Which of the following security methods uses physical characteristics of a person to authorize access to a location?

Options:

A.

Access control vestibule

B.

Palm scanner

C.

PIN pad

D.

Digital card reader

E.

Photo ID

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Questions 31

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must permit administrators to automatically authenticate if there is no response from cither of the AAA servers. Which configuration achieves these results?

Options:

A.

aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ line

B.

aaa authentication login default group radius none

C.

aaa authentication login default group radius

D.

aaa authentication enable default group radius local

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Questions 32

Refer to the exhibit. The existing configuration must be updated to terminate EXEC sessions after 20 minutes of idle time. Which command set should be applied?

Options:

A.

line vty 015 session-timeout 20

B.

line vty 015 session-limit 20

C.

line vty 015 exec-timeout 20

D.

line vty 015 absolute-timeout 20

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Questions 33

A technician is assisting a user who cannot connect to a website. The technician attempts to ping the default gateway and DNS server of the workstation. According to troubleshooting methodology, this is an example of:

Options:

A.

a divide-and-conquer approach.

B.

a bottom-up approach.

C.

a top-to-bottom approach.

D.

implementing a solution.

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Questions 34

Refer to the exhibit. Which action must be performed to allow RESTCONF access to the device?

Options:

A.

Enable the HTTPS service

B.

Enable the SSH service.

C.

Enable the NETCONF service

D.

Enable the IOX service.

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Questions 35

Which of the following should a junior security administrator recommend implementing to mitigate malicious network activity?

Options:

A.

Intrusion prevention system

B.

Load balancer

C.

Access logging

D.

Endpoint encryption

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Questions 36

Which two actions, when applied in the LAN network segment, will facilitate Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery for lightweight AP? Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable port security on the switch port.

B.

Configure an IP helper-address on the router interface.

C.

Utilize DHCP option 17.

D.

Configure WLC IP address LAN switch.

E.

Utilize DHCP option 43.

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Questions 37

Why would a small or mid-size business choose a cloud solution over an on-premises solution?

Options:

A.

Cloud provides higher data security than on-premises.

B.

Cloud provides more control over the implementation process than on-premises.

C.

Cloud provides greater ability for customization than on-premises.

D.

Cloud provides lower upfront cost than on-premises.

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Questions 38

Refer to Ihe exhibit. An engineer must update the existing configuation to achieve these resu ts:

• Only administrators from the 192.168 1.0.'?4 subnet can access the vty lines.

* Access to the vty lines using clear-text protocols is prohibited.

Which command set should be appled?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 39

What is a characteristic of a Type 2 hypervisor?

Options:

A.

It eliminates the need for an underlying operating system.

B.

Its main task is to manage hardware resources between different operating systems

C.

Problems in the base operating system can affect the entire system.

D.

It is completely independent of the operating system

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Questions 40

Refer to the exhibit. Which commands are required to allow SSHconnectionsto the router?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 41

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configures NAT on R1 and enters me show command to verity me configuration What toes the output confirm?

Options:

A.

The first pocket triggered NAT to add an entry to the NAT table

B.

R1 is configured with NAT overload parameters.

C.

A Telnet session from 160.1.1.1 to 10.1.1.10 has been initiated.

D.

R1 a configured win PAT overload parameters

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Questions 42

What is one difference between the RIB and the FIB?

Options:

A.

The RIB works at the data plane, and the FIB works at the control plane.

B.

The RIB is known as the CEF table, and the FIB is known as the routing table.

C.

The FIB contains routing prefixes, and the RIB contains the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information necessary to make a forwarding decision.

D.

The RIB keeps all routing information received from peers, and the FIB keeps the minimum information necessary to make a forwarding decision.

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Questions 43

Which mobility role is assigned to a client in the client table of the new controller after a Layer 3 roam?

Options:

A.

anchor

B.

foreign

C.

mobility

D.

transparent

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Questions 44

Which function is performed by vSmart in the Cisco SD-WAN architecture?

Options:

A.

distribution of IPsec keys

B.

Redistribution between OMP and other routing protocols

C.

facilitation of NAT detection and traversal

D.

execution of localized policies

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Questions 45

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must deny HTTP traffic from host A to host B while allowing all other communication between the hosts. Which command set accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 46

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to configure a WLAN for WPA2-AES with PSK and allow only 802.l1r-capable clients to connect?

Options:

A.

Change Fast Transition to Adaptive Enabled and enable FT * PSK

B.

Enable Fast Transition and FT + PSK.

C.

Enable Fast Transition and PSK

D.

Enable PSK and FT + PSK.

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Questions 47

An engineer must use flexible NetFlow on a group of switches. To prevent overloading of the flow collector, if the flow is idle for 20 seconds, the flow sample should be exported. Which command set should be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 48

in Cisco DNA Center what is used to publish events and notifications to a third party product such as IPAM?

Options:

A.

intent API

B.

southbound SDK

C.

integration API

D.

RESTfulAPI

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Questions 49

Router R1must be configured as a UDP responder on port 6336 Which configuration accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 50

Which behavior can be expected when the HSRP versions is changed from 1 to 2?

Options:

A.

Each HSRP group reinitializes because the virtual MAC address has changed.

B.

No changes occur because version 1 and 2 use the same virtual MAC OUI.

C.

Each HSRP group reinitializes because the multicast address has changed.

D.

No changes occur because the standby router is upgraded before the active router.

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Questions 51

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the QoS components on the right.

Options:

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Questions 52

Refer to the exhibit.

Which HTTP JSON response does the python code output give?

Options:

A.

NameError: name 'json' is not defined

B.

KeyError 'kickstart_ver_str'

C.

7.61

D.

7.0(3)I7(4)

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Questions 53

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has configured Cisco ISE to assign VLANs to clients based on their method of authentication, but this is not working as expected. Which action will resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

require a DHCP address assignment

B.

utilize RADIUS profiling

C.

set a NAC state

D.

enable AAA override

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Questions 54

Where is radio resource management performed in a cisco SD-access wireless solution?

Options:

A.

DNA Center

B.

control plane node

C.

wireless controller

D.

Cisco CMX

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Questions 55

A network engineer configures BGP between R1 and R2. Both routers use BGP peer group CORP and are set up to use MD5 authentication. This message is logged to the console of router R1:

Which two configuration allow peering session to from between R1 and R2? Choose two.)

Options:

A.

R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.1 peer-group CORP R1(config-router)#neighbor CORP password Cisco

B.

R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.120.10.1 peer-group CORP R2(config-router)#neighbor CORP password Cisco

C.

R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.1 peer-group CORP R2(config-router)#neighbor PEER password Cisco

D.

R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.120.10.1 peer-group CORP R1(config-router)#neighbor CORP password Cisco

E.

R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.10.10.1 peer-group CORP R2(config-router)#neighbor CORP password Cisco

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Questions 56

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel between Switch1 and Switch2 and notices the console message on switch2. Based on the output, which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Configure less member ports on Switch2.

B.

Configure the same port channel interface number on both switches

C.

Configure the same EtherChannel protocol on both switches

D.

Configure more member ports on Switch1.

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Questions 57

When a wireless client roams between two different wireless controllers, a network connectivity outage is experience for a period of time. Which configuration issue would cause this problem?

Options:

A.

Not all of the controllers in the mobility group are using the same mobility group name.

B.

Not all of the controllers within the mobility group are using the same virtual interface IP address.

C.

All of the controllers within the mobility group are using the same virtual interface IP address.

D.

All of the controllers in the mobility group are using the same mobility group name.

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Questions 58

Refer to the exhibit. External users require HTTP connectivity to an internal company web server that is listening on TCP port 8080. Which command set accomplishes this requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 59

After a redundant route processor failure occurs on a Layer 3 device, which mechanism allows for packets to be forwarded from a neighboring router based on the most recent tables?

Options:

A.

BFD

B.

RPVST+

C.

RP failover

D.

NSF

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Questions 60

Which features does Cisco EDR use to provide threat detection and response protection?

Options:

A.

containment, threat intelligence, and machine learning

B.

firewalling and intrusion prevention

C.

container-based agents

D.

cloud analysis and endpoint firewall controls

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Questions 61

When configuration WPA2 Enterprise on a WLAN, which additional security component configuration is required?

Options:

A.

NTP server

B.

PKI server

C.

RADIUS server

D.

TACACS server

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Questions 62

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the protocols they apply to on the right?

Options:

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Questions 63

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0. Which configuration set accomplishes this goal?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 64

What is the function of a VTEP in VXLAN?

Options:

A.

provide the routing underlay and overlay for VXLAN headers

B.

dynamically discover the location of end hosts in a VXLAN fabric

C.

encapsulate and de-encapsulate traffic into and out of the VXLAN fabric

D.

statically point to end host locations of the VXLAN fabric

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Questions 65

When is an external antenna used inside a building?

Options:

A.

only when using Mobility Express

B.

when it provides the required coverage

C.

only when using 2 4 GHz

D.

only when using 5 GHz

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Questions 66

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the configuration in this WLAN security setting, Which method can a client use to authenticate to the network?

Options:

A.

text string

B.

username and password

C.

certificate

D.

RADIUS token

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Questions 67

A customer requests a network design that supports these requirements:

Which protocol does the design include?

Options:

A.

HSRP version 2

B.

VRRP version 2

C.

GLBP

D.

VRRP version 3

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Questions 68

Refer to the exhibit How was spanning-tree configured on this interface?

Options:

A.

By entering the command spanning-tree portfast trunk in the interface configuration mode.

B.

By entering the command spanning-tree portfast in the interface configuration mode

C.

By entering the command spanning-tree mst1 vlan 10,20,30,40 in the global configuration mode

D.

By entering the command spanning-tree vlan 10,20,30,40 root primary in the interface configuration mode

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Questions 69

When using TLS for syslog, which configuration allows for secure and reliable transportation of messages to its default port?

Options:

A.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 6514

B.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 6514

C.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 514

D.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 514

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Questions 70

Refer to the exhibit Which single security feature is recommended to provide Network Access Control in the enterprise?

Options:

A.

MAB

B.

802.1X

C.

WebAuth

D.

port security sticky MAC

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Questions 71

An engineer configures HSRP group 37. The configuration does not modify the default virtual MAC address. Which virtual MAC address does the group use?

Options:

A.

C0:00:00:25:00:00

B.

00:00:0c:07:ac:37

C.

C0:39:83:25:258:5

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:25

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Questions 72

Refer to the exhibit.Anetwork engineer configuresNATon R1 and enters theshowcommand to verity the configuration What does the output confirm?

Options:

A.

The first pocket triggered NAT to add on entry to NAT table

B.

R1 is configured with NAT overload parameters

C.

A Telnet from 160.1.1 1 to 10.1.1.10 has been initiated.

D.

R1 to configured with PAT overload parameters

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Questions 73

What is the difference between CEF and process switching?

Options:

A.

CEF processes packets that are too complex for process switching to manage.

B.

CEF is more CPU-intensive than process switching.

C.

CEF uses the FIB and the adjacency table to make forwarding decisions, whereas process switching punts each packet.

D.

Process switching is faster than CEF.

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Questions 74

A customer has recently implemented a new wireless infrastructure using WLC-5520 at a site directly next to a large commercial airport. Users report that they intermittently lose WI-FI connectivity, and troubleshooting reveals it is due to frequent channel changes. Which two actions fix this issue? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Remove UNII-2 and Extended UNII-2 channels from the 5 Ghz channel list

B.

Restore the DCA default settings because this automatically avoids channel interference.

C.

Configure channels on the UNIk2 and the Extended UNII-2 sub-bands of the 5 Ghz band only

D.

Enable DFS channels because they are immune to radar interference.

E.

Disable DFS channels to prevent interference with Doppler radar

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Questions 75

Refer to the exhibit. POSTMAN is showing an attempt to retrieve network device information from Cisco DNA Center API. What is the issue?

Options:

A.

The URI string is incorrect

B.

The token has expired.

C.

Authentication has failed

D.

The JSON payload contains the incorrect UUID

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Questions 76

What is the output of this code?

Options:

A.

username Cisco

B.

get_credentials

C.

username

D.

CISCO

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Questions 77

Which controller is capable of acting as a STUN server during the onboarding process of Edge devices?

Options:

A.

vBond

B.

vSmart

C.

vManage

D.

PNP server

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Questions 78

Drag and drop the threat defense solutions from the left onto their descriptions on the right.

Options:

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Questions 79

What is the differences between TCAM and the MAC address table?

Options:

A.

The MAC address table is contained in TCAM ACL and QoS information is stored in TCAM

B.

The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match

C.

Router prefix lookups happens in CAM. MAC address table lookups happen in TCAM.

D.

TCAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions CAM is used to build routing tables

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Questions 80

What is the function of the LISP map resolver?

Options:

A.

to send traffic to non-LISP sites when connected to a service provider that does not accept nonroutable ElDs as packet sources

B.

to connect a site to the LISP-capable part of a core network publish the EID-to-RLOC mappings for the site, and respond to map-request messages

C.

to decapsulate map-request messages from ITRs and forward the messages to the MS.

D.

to advertise routable non-LISP traffic from one address family to LISP sites in a different address family

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Questions 81

Which action is the vSmart controller responsible for in an SD-WAN deployment?

Options:

A.

handle, maintain, and gather configuration and status for nodes within the SD-WAN fabric

B.

distribute policies that govern data forwarding performed within the SD-WAN fabric

C.

gather telemetry data from vEdge routers

D.

onboard vEdge nodes into the SD-WAN fabric

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Questions 82

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures a new HSRP group. While reviewing the HSRP status, the engineer sees the logging message generated on R2. Which is the cause of the message?

Options:

A.

The same virtual IP address has been configured for two HSRP groups

B.

The HSRP configuration has caused a spanning-tree loop

C.

The HSRP configuration has caused a routing loop

D.

A PC is on the network using the IP address 10.10.1.1

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Questions 83

Refer to the exhibit. What does the error message relay to the administrator who is trying to configure a Cisco IOS device?

Options:

A.

A NETCONF request was made for a data model that does not exist.

B.

The device received a valid NETCONF request and serviced it without error.

C.

A NETCONF message with valid content based on the YANG data models was made, but the request failed.

D.

The NETCONF running datastore is currently locked.

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Questions 84

Which technology provides a secure communication channel for all traffic at Layer 2 of the OSI model?

Options:

A.

MACsec

B.

IPsec

C.

SSL

D.

Cisco Trustsec

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Questions 85

How is Layer 3 roaming accomplished in a unified wireless deployment?

Options:

A.

An EoIP tunnel is created between the client and the anchor controller to provide seamless connectivity as the client is associated with the new AP.

B.

The client entry on the original controller is passed to the database on the new controller.

C.

The new controller assigns an IP address from the new subnet to the client

D.

The client database on the original controller is updated the anchor entry, and the new controller database is updated with the foreign entry.

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Questions 86

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer attempts to create a configuration to allow the Blue VRF to leak into the global routing table, but the configuration does not function as expected. Which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Change the access-list destination mask to a wildcard.

B.

Change the source network that Is specified in access-list 101.

C.

Change the route-map configuration to VRF_BLUE.

D.

Change the access-list number in the route map

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Questions 87

In an SD-Access solution what is the role of a fabric edge node?

Options:

A.

to connect external Layer 3- network to the SD-Access fabric

B.

to connect wired endpoint to the SD-Access fabric

C.

to advertise fabric IP address space to external network

D.

to connect the fusion router to the SD-Access fabric

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Questions 88

Which method should an engineer use to deal with a long-standing contention issue between any two VMs on the same host?

Options:

A.

Adjust the resource reservation limits

B.

Live migrate the VM to another host

C.

Reset the VM

D.

Reset the host

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Questions 89

An engineer is concerned with the deployment of new application that is sensitive to inter-packet delay variance. Which command configures the router to be the destination of jitter measurements?

Options:

A.

Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000

B.

Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000

C.

Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000

D.

Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000

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Questions 90

Which exhibit displays a valid JSON file?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 91

A customer has several small branches and wants to deploy a WI-FI solution with local management using CAPWAP. Which deployment model meets this requirement?

Options:

A.

Autonomous

B.

Mobility Express

C.

SD-Access wireless

D.

Local mode

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Questions 92

Which design principle slates that a user has no access by default to any resource, and unless a resource is explicitly granted, it should be denied?

Options:

A.

least privilege

B.

fail-safe defaults

C.

economy of mechanism

D.

complete mediation

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Questions 93

Drag and drop the DHCP messages that are exchanged between a client and an AP into the order they are exchanged on the right.

Options:

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Questions 94

Refer to the exhibit. Which action completes the configuration to achieve a dynamic continuous mapped NAT for all users?

Options:

A.

Configure a match-host type NAT pool

B.

Reconfigure the pool to use the 192.168 1 0 address range

C.

Increase the NAT pool size to support 254 usable addresses

D.

Configure a one-to-one type NAT pool

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Questions 95

A network administrator has designed a network with two multilayer switches on the distribution layer, which act as default gateways for the end hosts. Which two technologies allow every end host in a VLAN to use both gateways? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

GLBP

B.

HSRP

C.

MHSRP

D.

VSS

E.

VRRP

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Questions 96

How does an on-premises infrastructure compare to a cloud infrastructure?

Options:

A.

On-premises can increase compute power faster than cloud

B.

On-premises requires less power and cooling resources than cloud

C.

On-premises offers faster deployment than cloud

D.

On-premises offers lower latency for physically adjacent systems than cloud.

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Questions 97

which entity is a Type 1 hypervisor?

Options:

A.

Oracle VM VirtualBox

B.

VMware server

C.

Citrix XenServer

D.

Microsoft Virtual PC

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Questions 98

Which two threats does AMP4E have the ability to block? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

DDoS

B.

ransomware

C.

Microsoft Word macro attack

D.

SQL injection

E.

email phishing

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Questions 99

How does EIGRP differ from OSPF?

Options:

A.

EIGRP is more prone to routing loops than OSPF

B.

EIGRP supports equal or unequal path cost, and OSPF supports only equal path cost.

C.

EIGRP has a full map of the topology, and OSPF only knows directly connected neighbors

D.

EIGRP uses more CPU and memory than OSPF

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Questions 100

An engineer is describing QoS to a client. Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Policing adapts to network congestion by queuing excess traffic

B.

Policing should be performed as close to the destination as possible

C.

Policing drops traffic that exceeds the defined rate

D.

Policing typically delays the traffic, rather than drops it

E.

Policing should be performed as close to the source as possible

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Questions 101

Refer to the exhibit.

Why does the OSPF neighborship fail between the two interfaces?

Options:

A.

The IP subnet mask is not the same.

B.

There is a mismatch in the OSPF interface network type.

C.

The OSPF timers are different.

D.

The MTU is nor the same.

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Questions 102

What is the function of vBond in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

Options:

A.

initiating connections with SD-WAN routers automatically

B.

pushing of configuration toward SD-WAN routers

C.

onboarding of SD-WAN routers into the SD-WAN overlay

D.

gathering telemetry data from SD-WAN routers

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Questions 103

An engineer must create a script to append and modify device entries in a JSON-formatted file. The script must work as follows:

    Until interrupted from the keyboard, the script reads in the hostname of a device, its management IP address, operating system type, and CLI remote access protocol.

    After being interrupted, the script displays the entered entries and adds them to the JSON-formatted file, replacing existing entries whose hostname matches.

The contents of the JSON-formatted file are as follows:

Drag and drop the statements onto the blanks within the code to complete the script. Not all options are used.

Options:

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Questions 104

What is the rose of the vSmart controller in a Cisco SD-WN environment?

Options:

A.

it performs authentication and authorization

B.

it manages the control plane.

C.

it is the centralized network management system

D.

it manages the data plane

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Questions 105

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer builds an EEM script to apply an access list. Which statement must be added to complete the script?

Options:

A.

event none

B.

action 2.1 cli command "ip action 3.1 ell command 101''

C.

action 6.0 ell command ''ip access-list extended 101''

D.

action 6.0 cli command ''ip access-list extended 101"

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Questions 106

An engineer must implement a configuration to allow a network administrator to connect to the console port of a router and authenticate over the network. Which command set should the engineer use?

Options:

A.

aaa new-model

aaa authentication login default enable

B.

aaa new-model

aaa authentication login console local

C.

aaa new-model aaa authentication login console group radius

D.

aaa new-model

aaa authentication enable default

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Questions 107

Which of the following are examples of Type 2 hypervisors? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

VMware ESXi

B.

Oracle VirtualBox

C.

Oracle Solaris Zones

D.

Microsoft Hyper-V

E.

Microsoft Virtual PC

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Questions 108

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes the root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

spanning-tree mst 1 priority 1

B.

spanning-tree mstp vlan 10.20 root primary

C.

spanning-tree mil 1 root primary

D.

spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096

E.

spanning-tree mst vlan 10.20 priority root

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Questions 109

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer constructs an EEM applet to prevent anyone from entering configuration mode on a switch. Which snippet is required to complete the EEM applet?

Options:

A.

sync yes skip yes

B.

sync no skip yes

C.

sync no skip no

D.

sync yes skip no

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Questions 110

Which signal strength and noise values meet the minimum SNR for voice networks?

Options:

A.

signal strength -67 dBm, noise 91 dBm

B.

signal strength -69 dBm, noise 94 dBm

C.

signal strength -68 dBm, noise 89 dBm

D.

signal strength -66 dBm, noise 90 dBm

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Questions 111

Which tool is used in Cisco DNA Center to build generic configurations that are able to be applied on device with similar network settings?

Options:

A.

Command Runner

B.

Template Editor

C.

Application Policies

D.

Authentication Template

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Questions 112

Which there application has the ability to make REST calls against Cisco DNA Center?

Options:

A.

API Explorer

B.

REST Explorer

C.

Postman

D.

Mozilla

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Questions 113

Refer to the exhibit.

The WLC administrator sees that the controller to which a roaming client associates has Mobility Role Anchor configured under Clients > Detail. Which type of roaming is supported?

Options:

A.

Indirect

B.

Layer 3 intercontroller

C.

Layer 2 intercontroller

D.

Intracontroller

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Questions 114

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration is required to summarize the Area 2 networks that are advertised to Area 0?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 115

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the switching mechanisms they describe on the right.

Options:

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Questions 116

Which two features are available only in next-generation firewalls? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

virtual private network

B.

deep packet inspection

C.

stateful inspection

D.

application awareness

E.

packet filtering

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Questions 117

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must assign an IP address of 192.168.1.1/24 to the GigabitEtherenet1 interface. Which two commands must be added to the existing configuration to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Router(config-vrf)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

B.

Router(config-vrf)#address-family ipv4

C.

Router(config-if)#address-family ipv4

D.

Router(config-vrf)#address-family ipv6

E.

Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

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Questions 118

Refer to the exhibit.

What is output by this code?

Options:

A.

8 7 6 5

B.

-4 -5 -6 -7

C.

-1 -2-3-4

D.

4 5 6 7

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Questions 119

In which two ways does the routing protocol OSPF differ from EIGRP? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

OSPF supports an unlimited number of hops. EIGRP supports a maximum of 255 hops.

B.

OSPF provides shorter convergence time than EIGRP.

C.

OSPF is distance vector protocol.EIGRP is a link-state protocol.

D.

OSPF supports only equal-cost load balancing. EIGRP supports unequal-cost load balancing.

E.

OSPF supports unequal-cost load balancing. EIGRP supports only equal-cost load balancing.

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Questions 120

Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end?

Options:

A.

TCP connect

B.

ICMP echo

C.

ICMP jitter

D.

UDP jitter

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Questions 121

Company policy restricts VLAN 10 to be allowed only on SW1 and SW2. All other VLANs can be on all three switches. An administrator has noticed that VLAN 10 has propagated to SW3. Which configuration corrects the issue?

Options:

A.

SW1(config)#intgi1/1

SW1(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9,11-4094

B.

SW2(config)#intgi1/2

SW2(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

C.

SW2(config)#int gi1/2

SW2(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9,11-4094

D.

SWl(config)#intgi1/1

SW1(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

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Questions 122

How does SSO work with HSRP to minimize network disruptions?

Options:

A.

It enables HSRP to elect another switch in the group as the active HSRP switch.

B.

It ensures fast failover in the case of link failure.

C.

It enables data forwarding along known routes following a switchover, white the routing protocol reconverges.

D.

It enables HSRP to failover to the standby RP on the same device.

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Questions 123

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to create an EEM script that adds an entry to a locally stored text file with a timestamp when a configuration change is made. Not all options are used.

Options:

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Questions 124

Which authorization framework gives third-party applications limited access to HTTP services?

Options:

A.

iPsec

B.

Basic Auth

C.

GRE

D.

OAuth 2.0

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Questions 125

Options:

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Questions 126

Options:

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Questions 127

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco IOS routers R1 and R2 are interconnected using interface Gi0/0. Which configuration allows R1 and R2 to form an OSPF neighborship on interface Gi0/0?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 128

Options:

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Questions 129

Options:

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Questions 130

Options:

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Questions 131

Options:

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Questions 132

Options:

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Questions 133

Options:

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Questions 134

OR

Options:

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Questions 135

Options:

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Questions 136

Options:

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Questions 137

Options:

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Questions 138

Options:

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Questions 139

Options:

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Questions 140

Options:

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Questions 141

Options:

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Questions 142

Options:

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Questions 143

Options:

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Questions 144

Options:

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Questions 145

Options:

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Questions 146

Options:

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Questions 147

Options:

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Questions 148

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of antenna does the radiation pattern represent?

Options:

A.

Yagi

B.

multidirectional

C.

directional patch

D.

omnidirectional

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Questions 149

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the deployment models on the right.

Options:

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Questions 150

What Is a Type 2 hypervisor?

Options:

A.

installed as an application on an already installed operating system

B.

runs directly on a physical server and includes its own operating system

C.

supports over-allocation of physical resources

D.

also referred to as a "bare metal hypervisor" because it sits directly on the physical server

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Questions 151

Refer to the exhibit. Which command is required to verify NETCONF capability reply messages?

Options:

A.

show netconf | section rpc-reply

B.

show netconf rpc-reply

C.

show netconf xml rpc-reply

D.

show netconf schema | section rpc-reply

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Questions 152

Which element enables communication between guest VMs within a virtualized environment?

Options:

A.

hypervisor

B.

vSwitch

C.

virtual router

D.

pNIC

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Questions 153

Refer to the exhibit.

After configuring HSRP an engineer enters the show standby command. Which two facts are derived from the output? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The router with IP 10.10 1.3 is active because it has a higher IP address

B.

If Fa0/0 is shut down, the HSRP priority on R2 becomes 80

C.

R2 Fa1/0 regains the primary role when the link comes back up

D.

R2 becomes the active router after the hold time expires.

E.

R2 is using the default HSRP hello and hold timers.

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Questions 154

What is one difference between EIGRP and OSPF?

Options:

A.

OSPF is a Cisco proprietary protocol, and EIGRP is an IETF open standard protocol.

B.

OSPF uses the DUAL distance vector algorithm, and EIGRP uses the Dijkstra link-state algorithm

C.

EIGRP uses the variance command lot unequal cost load balancing, and OSPF supports unequal cost balancing by default.

D.

EIGRP uses the DUAL distance vector algorithm, and OSPF uses the Dijkstra link-state algorithm

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Questions 155

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 16 use?

Options:

A.

c0:41:43:64:13:10

B.

00:00:0c 07:ac:10

C.

00:05:5c:07:0c:16

D.

05:00:0c:07:ac:16

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Questions 156

A network monitoring system uses SNMP polling to record the statistics of router interfaces The SNMP queries work as expected until an engineer installs a new interface and reloads the router After this action, all SNMP queries for the router fail What is the cause of this issue?

Options:

A.

The SNMP community is configured incorrectly

B.

The SNMP interface index changed after reboot.

C.

The SNMP server traps are disabled for the interface index

D.

The SNMP server traps are disabled for the link state.

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Questions 157

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer attempts to bundle interface Gi0/0 into the port channel, but it does not function as expected. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure channel-group 1 mode active on interface Gi0/0.

B.

Configure no shutdown on interface Gi0/0

C.

Enable fast LACP PDUs on interface Gi0/0.

D.

Set LACP max-bundle to 2 on interface Port-channeM

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Questions 158

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer troubleshoots connectivity issues with an application. Testing is performed from the server gateway, and traffic with the DF bit set is dropped along the path after increasing packet size. Removing the DF bit setting at the gateway prevents the packets from being dropped. What is the cause of this issue?

Options:

A.

PMTUD does not work due to ICMP Packet Too Big messages being dropped by an ACL

B.

The remote router drops the traffic due to high CPU load

C.

The server should not set the DF bit in any type of traffic that is sent toward the network

D.

There is a CoPP policy in place protecting the WAN router CPU from this type of traffic

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Questions 159

Refer to the exhibit.

VPN-A sends point-to-point traffic to VPN-B and receives traffic only from VPN-C VPN-B sends point-to-point traffic to VPN-C and receives traffic only from VPN-A Which configuration is applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 160

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is designing a guest portal on Cisco ISE using the default configuration. During the testing phase, the engineer receives a warning when displaying the guest portal. Which issue is occurring?

Options:

A.

The server that is providing the portal has an expired certificate

B.

The server that is providing the portal has a self-signed certificate

C.

The connection is using an unsupported protocol

D.

The connection is using an unsupported browser

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Questions 161

How does a fabric AP fit in the network?

Options:

A.

It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node

B.

It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.

C.

It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node

D.

It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.

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Questions 162

Which method does Cisco DNA Center use to allow management of non-Cisco devices through southbound protocols?

Options:

A.

It creates device packs through the use of an SDK

B.

It uses an API call to interrogate the devices and register the returned data.

C.

It obtains MIBs from each vendor that details the APIs available.

D.

It imports available APIs for the non-Cisco device in a CSV format.

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Questions 163

The login method is configured on the VTY lines of a router with these parameters

    The first method for authentication it TACACS

    If TACACS is unavailable login is allowed without any provided credentials

Which configuration accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 164

Refer to the exhibit.

What are two reasons for IP SLA tracking failure? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

The destination must be 172 30 30 2 for icmp-echo

B.

A route back to the R1 LAN network is missing in R2.

C.

The source-interface is configured incorrectly.

D.

The default route has the wrong next hop IP address

E.

The threshold value is wrong

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Questions 165

Based on the router's API output in JSON format below, which Python code will display the value of the "hostname" key?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

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Questions 166

What is a benefit of Type 1 hypervisors?

Options:

A.

Administrators are able to load portable virtual machine packages in OVA or QCOW2 formats.

B.

Network engineers are able to create virtual networks o interconnect virtual machines in Layer 2 topologies

C.

Operators are able to leverage orchestrators to manage workloads that run on multiple Type 1 hypervisors

D.

Storage engineers are able to leverage VMDK files to provide storage to virtual machine.

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Questions 167

A customer wants to provide wireless access to contractors using a guest portal on Cisco ISE. The portal Is also used by employees A solution is implemented, but contractors receive a certificate error when they attempt to access the portal Employees can access the portal without any errors. Which change must be implemented to allow the contractors and employees to access the portal?

Options:

A.

Install a trusted third-party certificate on the Cisco ISE.

B.

Install an Internal CA signed certificate on the contractor devices

C.

Install an internal CA signed certificate on the Cisco ISE

D.

install a trusted third-party certificate on the contractor devices.

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Questions 168

What are two common sources of interference for Wi-Fi networks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

rogue AP

B.

conventional oven

C.

fire alarm

D.

LED lights

E.

radar

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Questions 169

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must add the SNMP interface table to the NetFlow protocol flow records. Where should the SNMP table option be added?

Options:

A.

under the interface

B.

under the flow record

C.

under the flow monitor

D.

under the flow exporter

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Questions 170

An engineer must configure AAA on a Cisco 9800 WLC for central web authentication Which two commands are needed to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 171

Why would an engineer use YANG?

Options:

A.

to transport data between a controller and a network device

B.

to access data using SNMP

C.

to model data for NETCONF

D.

to translate JSON into an equivalent XML syntax

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Questions 172

What is the structure of a JSON web token?

Options:

A.

three parts separated by dots: header payload, and signature

B.

header and payload

C.

three parts separated by dots: version header and signature

D.

payload and signature

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Questions 173

A customer wants to use a single SSID to authenticate loT devices using different passwords. Which Layer 2 security type must be configured in conjunction with Cisco ISE to achieve this requirement?

Options:

A.

Fast Transition

B.

Central Web Authentication

C.

Cisco Centralized Key Management

D.

Identity PSK

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Questions 174

An engineer configures GigabitEthernet 0/1 for VRRP group 115. The router must assume the primary role when it has the highest priority in the group. Which command set is required to complete this task?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 175

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must create a configuration that prevents R3from receiving the LSA about 172.16.1.4/32.Which configuration set achieves this goal?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 176

Refer to the exhibit.

Which Python code snippet prints the descriptions of disabled interfaces only?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 177

Which cisco DNA center application is responsible for group-based accesss control permissions?

Options:

A.

Design

B.

Provision

C.

Assurance

D.

Policy

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Questions 178

Which two parameters are examples of a QoS traffic descriptor? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

MPLS EXP bits

B.

bandwidth

C.

DSCP

D.

ToS

E.

packet size

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Questions 179

What are two considerations when using SSO as a network redundancy feature? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

both supervisors must be configured separately

B.

the multicast state is preserved during switchover

C.

must be combined with NSF to support uninterrupted Layer 2 operations

D.

must be combined with NSF to support uninterrupted Layer 3 operations

E.

requires synchronization between supervisors in order to guarantee continuous connectivity

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Questions 180

An engineer must configure the strongest password authentication to locally authenticate on a router. Which configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 181

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command when applied to the Atlanta router reduces type 3 LSA flooding into the backbone area and summarizes the inter-area routes on the Dallas router?

Options:

A.

Atlanta(config-route)#area 0 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.248.0

B.

Atlanta(config-route)#area 0 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0

C.

Atlanta(config-route)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0

D.

Atlanta(config-route)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.248.0

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Questions 182

What is the wireless received signal strength indicator?

Options:

A.

The value given to the strength of the wireless signal received compared to the noise level

B.

The value of how strong the wireless signal Is leaving the antenna using transmit power, cable loss, and antenna gain

C.

The value of how much wireless signal is lost over a defined amount of distance

D.

The value of how strong a tireless signal is receded, measured in dBm

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Questions 183

Which antenna type should be used for a site-to-site wireless connection?

Options:

A.

Omnidirectional

B.

dipole

C.

patch

D.

Yagi

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Questions 184

What does a northbound API accomplish?

Options:

A.

programmatic control of abstracted network resources through a centralized controller

B.

access to controlled network resources from a centralized node

C.

communication between SDN controllers and physical switches

D.

controlled access to switches from automated security applications

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Questions 185

Which access point mode allows a supported AP to function like a WLAN client would, associating and identifying client connectivity issues?

Options:

A.

client mode

B.

SE-connect mode

C.

sensor mode

D.

sniffer mode

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Questions 186

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must establish eBGP peering between router R3 and router R4. Both routers should use their loopback interfaces as the BGP router ID. Which configuration set accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

R3(config)#router bgp 200

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100

R3(config-router)# neighbor 10.4.4.4 update-source Loopback0

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#network 10.3.3.3 update-source Loopback0

B.

R3(config)#router bgp 200

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 update-source Loopback0

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 update-source Loopback0

C.

R3(config)#router bgp 200

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100

R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4

D.

R3(config)#router bgp 200

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100

R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4

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Questions 187

Refer to the exhibit.

Which privilege level is assigned to VTY users?

Options:

A.

1

B.

7

C.

13

D.

15

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Questions 188

Refer to the exhibit.

A company requires that all wireless users authenticate using dynamic key generation. Which configuration must be applied?

Options:

A.

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication open wep wep_methods

B.

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication dynamic wep wep_methods

C.

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication dynamic open wep_dynamic

D.

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication open eap eap_methods

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Questions 189

Which network devices secure API platform?

Options:

A.

next-generation intrusion detection systems

B.

Layer 3 transit network devices

C.

content switches

D.

web application firewalls

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Questions 190

A client device roams between access points located on different floors in an atrium. The access points are Joined to the same controller and configured in local mode. The access points are in different AP groups and have different IP addresses, but the client VLAN in the groups is the same. Which type of roam occurs?

Options:

A.

inter-controller

B.

inter-subnet

C.

intra-VLAN

D.

intra-controller

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Questions 191

How is a data modeling language used?

Options:

A.

To enable data lo be easily structured, grouped, validated, and replicated

B.

To represent finite and well-defined network elements that cannot be changed

C.

To model the flows of unstructured data within the infrastructure

D.

To provide human readability to scripting languages

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Questions 192

How does CEF switching differ from process switching on Cisco devices?

Options:

A.

CEF switching saves memory by sorting adjacency tables in dedicate memory on the line cards, and process switching stores all tables in the main memory

B.

CEF switching uses adjacency tables built by the CDP protocol, and process switching uses the routing table

C.

CEF switching uses dedicated hardware processors, and process switching uses the main processor

D.

CEF switching uses proprietary protocol based on IS-IS for MAC address lookup, and process switching uses in MAC address table

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Questions 193

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator must be able to perform configuration changes when all the RADIUS servers are unreachable. Which configuration allows all commands to be authorized if the user has successfully authenticated?

Options:

A.

aaa authorization exec default group radius none

B.

aaa authentication login default group radius local none

C.

aaa authorization exec default group radius if-authenticated

D.

aaa authorization exec default group radius

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Questions 194

Refer to the exhibit.

After the code is run on a Cisco IOS-XE router, the response code is 204.

What is the result of the script?

Options:

A.

The configuration fails because another interface is already configured with IP address 10.10.10.1/24.

B.

The configuration fails because interface GigabitEthernet2 is missing on the target device.

C.

The configuration is successfully sent to the device in cleartext.

D.

Interface GigabitEthernet2 is configured with IP address 10.10.10.1/24

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Questions 195

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer attempts to configure a router on a stick to route packets between Clients, Servers, and Printers; however, initial tests show that this configuration is not working. Which command set resolves this issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 196

Which two items are found in YANG data models? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

HTTP return codes

B.

rpc statements

C.

JSON schema

D.

container statements

E.

XML schema

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Questions 197

What is a characteristics of a vSwitch?

Options:

A.

supports advanced Layer 3 routing protocols that are not offered by a hardware switch

B.

enables VMs to communicate with each other within a virtualized server

C.

has higher performance than a hardware switch

D.

operates as a hub and broadcasts the traffic toward all the vPorts

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Questions 198

Reter to the exhibit.

An administrator troubleshoots intermittent connectivity from internal hosts to an external public server. Some internal hosts can connect to the server whileothers receive an ICMP Host Unreachable message and these hosts change over time. What is the cause of this issue?

Options:

A.

The translator does not use aOdress overloading

B.

The NAT ACL does not match alt internal hosts

C.

The NAT ACL and NAT pool share the same name

D.

The NAT pool netmask is excessively wide

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Questions 199

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command set is needed to configure and verify router R3 to measure the response time from router R3 to the file server located in the data center?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 200

What is one characteristic of the Cisco SD-Access control plane?

Options:

A.

It is based on VXLAN technology.

B.

Each router processes every possible destination and route

C.

It allows host mobility only in the wireless network.

D.

It stores remote routes in a centralized database server

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Questions 201

Drag and drop the LIPS components on the left to the correct description on the right.

Options:

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Questions 202

Refer the exhibit.

Which configuration elects SW4 as the root bridge for VLAN 1 and puts G0/2 on SW2 into a blocking state?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

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Questions 203

Which two characteristics apply to the endpoint security aspect of the Cisco Threat Defense architecture? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

detect and black ransomware in email attachments

B.

outbound URL analysis and data transfer controls

C.

user context analysis

D.

blocking of fileless malware in real time

E.

cloud-based analysis of threats

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Questions 204

Which definition describes JWT in regard to REST API security?

Options:

A.

an encrypted JSON token that is used for authentication

B.

an encrypted JSON token that is used for authorization

C.

an encoded JSON token that is used to securely exchange information

D.

an encoded JSON token that is used for authentication

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Questions 205

Refer to the exhibit. Which python code parses the response and prints “18:32:21.474 UTC sun Mar 10 2019?

Options:

A.

print(response['resut'][0||'simple_time']}

B.

print(response[result']['body']['simple_time']}

C.

print(response['body']['simple_time']}

D.

print(response[jresult']['body']['simple_time']}

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Questions 206

Which protocol is responsible for data plane forwarding in a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

Options:

A.

VXLAN

B.

IS-IS

C.

OSPF

D.

LISP

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Questions 207

Refer to the exhibit.

After configuring the BGP network, an engineer verifies that the path between Servers and Server2 Is functional. Why did RouterSF choose the route from RouterDAL instead of the route from RouterCHI?

Options:

A.

The Router-ID Tor Router DAL is lower than the Roter-ID for RouterCHI.

B.

The route from RouterOAL has a lower MED.

C.

BGP is not running on RouterCHI.

D.

There is a static route in RouterSF for 10.0.0.0/24.

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Questions 208

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure the router to use the ISE-Servers group for authentication. If both ISE servers are unavailable, the local username database must be used. If no usernames are defined in the configuration, then the enable password must be the last resort to log in. Which configuration must be applied to achieve this result?

Options:

A.

aaa authentication login default group ISE-Servers local enable

B.

aaa authentication login default group enable local ISE-Servers

C.

aaa authorization exec default group ISE-Servers local enable

D.

aaa authentication login error-enable

aaa authentication login default group enable local ISE-Servers

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Questions 209

Which Python snippet shouldbeused to store the devices data structure in a JSON file?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 210

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer checks connectivity between two routers. The engineer can ping the remote endpoint but cannot see an ARP entry. Why is there no ARP entry?

Options:

A.

The ping command must be executed in the global routing table.

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/0 Is configured in VRF CUST-A, so the ARP entry is also in that VRF.

C.

When VRFs are used. ARP protocol must be enabled In each VRF.

D.

When VRFs are used. ARP protocol is disabled in the global routing table.

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Questions 211

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 32 use?

Options:

A.

00:5e:0c:07:ac:20

B.

04:18:20:83:2e:32

C.

05:5e:5c:ac:0c:32

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:20

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Questions 212

A company requires a wireless solution to support its mam office and multiple branch locations. All sites have local Internet connections and a link to the main office lor corporate connectivity. The branch offices are managed centrally. Which solution should the company choose?

Options:

A.

Cisco United Wireless Network

B.

Cisco DNA Spaces

C.

Cisco Catalyst switch with embedded controller

D.

Cisco Mobility Express

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Questions 213

Refer to the exhibit. What is generated by the script?

Options:

A.

the cdp neighbors

B.

the routing table

C.

the router processes

D.

the running configuration

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Questions 214

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be implemented to establish EBGP peering between R1 and R2?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 215

A network engineer is configuring OSPF on a router. The engineer wants to prevent having a route to 177.16.0.0/16 learned via OSPF. In the routing table and configures a prefix list using the command ip prefix-list OFFICE seq S deny 172.16.0.0/16. Winch two identical configuration commands must be applied to accomplish the goal? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

distribute-list prefix OFFICE in under the OSPF process

B.

Ip prefix-list OFFICE seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 Ie 32

C.

ip prefix-list OFFICE seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 ge 32

D.

distribute-list OFFICE out under the OSPF process

E.

distribute-list OFFICE in under the OSPF process

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Questions 216

Which function does a fabric wireless LAN controller perform In a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

Options:

A.

manages fabric-enabled APs and forwards client registration and roaming information to the Control Plane Node

B.

coordinates configuration of autonomous nonfabric access points within the fabric

C.

performs the assurance engine role for both wired and wireless clients

D.

is dedicated to onboard clients in fabric-enabled and nonfabric-enabled APs within the fabric

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Questions 217

What are the main components of Cisco TrustSec?

Options:

A.

Cisco ISE and Enterprise Directory Services

B.

Cisco ISE. network switches, firewalls, and routers

C.

Cisco ISE and TACACS+

D.

Cisco ASA and Cisco Firepower Threat Defense

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Questions 218

What happens when a FlexConnect AP changes to standalone mode?

Options:

A.

All controller-dependent activities stop working except the DFS.

B.

All client roaming continues to work

C.

Only clients on central switching WLANs stay connected.

D.

All clients on an WLANs are disconnected

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Questions 219

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of introducing the sampler feature into the Flexible NetFlow configuration on the router?

Options:

A.

NetFlow updates to the collector are sent 50% less frequently.

B.

Every second IPv4 packet is forwarded to the collector for inspection.

C.

CPU and memory utilization are reduced when compared with what is required for full NetFlow.

D.

The resolution of sampling data increases, but it requires more performance from the router.

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Questions 220

Which protocol is implemented to establish secure control plane adjacencies between Cisco SD-WAN nodes?

Options:

A.

IKF

B.

TLS

C.

IPsec

D.

ESP

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Questions 221

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure deployment models on the right.

Options:

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Questions 222

Which type of tunnel Is required between two WLCs to enable Intercontroller roaming?

Options:

A.

mobility

B.

LWAPP

C.

CAPWAP

D.

iPsec

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Questions 223

Refer to the exhibit.

The port channel between the switches does not work as expected. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Interface Gi0/0 on Switch2 must be configured as passive.

B.

Interface Gi0/1 on Switch1 must be configured as desirable.

C.

interface Gi0/1 on Switch2 must be configured as active.

D.

Trucking must be enabled on both Interfaces on Switch2.

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Questions 224

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must allow R1 to advertise the 192 168.1 0/24 network to R2 R1 must perform this action without sending OSPF packets to SW1 Which command set should be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 225

If the maximum power level assignment for global TPC 802.11a/n/ac is configured to 10 dBm, which power level effectively doubles the transmit power?

Options:

A.

13dBm

B.

14 dBm

C.

17dBm

D.

20 dBm

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Questions 226

What is the purpose of an RP in PIM?

Options:

A.

send join messages toward a multicast source SPT

B.

ensure the shortest path from the multicast source to the receiver

C.

receive IGMP joins from multicast receivers

D.

secure the communication channel between the multicast sender and receiver

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Questions 227

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured RSPAN to troubleshoot an issue between switch1 and switch2. The switches are connected using interface GigabitEthernet 1/1. An external packet capture device is connected is switch2 interface GigabitEthernet 1/2. Which two commands must be added to complete this configuration? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 228

Refer to the exhibit .

Which command must be configured for RESTCONF to operate on port 8888?

Options:

A.

ip http port 8888

B.

restconf port 8888

C.

ip http restconf port 8888

D.

restconf http port 8888

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Questions 229

What does the number in an NTP stratum level represent?

Options:

A.

The number of hops it takes to reach the master time server.

B.

The number of hops it takes to reach the authoritative time source.

C.

The amount of offset between the device clock and true time.

D.

The amount of drift between the device clock and true time.

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Questions 230

What is a characteristic of a type 2 hypervisor?

Options:

A.

ideal for data center

B.

complicated deployment

C.

ideal for client/end-user system

D.

referred to as bare-metal

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Questions 231

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must load balance traffic that comes from the NAT Router and is destined to 10.10.110.10, to several FTP servers. Which two commands sets should be applied? (Choose two).

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 232

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must deny Telnet traffic from the loopback interface of router R3 to the Loopback interface of router R2 during, the weekend hours. All other traffic between the loopback interfaces of routers R3 and R2 must be allowed at all times Which command set accomplishes this task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 233

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be added to enable GigabitEthemet 0/1 to participate in OSPF?

Options:

A.

SF_router (config-router)# network 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

B.

SF_rouier (conng)# network 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 1

C.

SF_router (conflg-routerp) network 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 1

D.

SF_rouler (contlg-rouler)# network 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

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Questions 234

By default, which virtual MAC address Goes HSRP group 25 use?

Options:

A.

05:5c:5e:ac:0c:25

B.

04:16:6S:96:1C:19

C.

00:00:0c:07:ac:19

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:25

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Questions 235

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of the API request?

Options:

A.

The "params" variable sends data fields to the network appliance.

B.

The native interface information is read from the network appliance.

C.

The Information for all interfaces is read from the network appliance.

D.

The "params" variable reads data fields from the network appliance

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Questions 236

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the deployment types on the right.

Options:

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Questions 237

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must block Telnet traffic from hosts in the range of 10.100 2.248 to 10.100.2 255 to the network 10.100.3.0 and permit everything else. Which configuration must the engineer apply'?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 238

Which benefit is realized by implementing SSO?

Options:

A.

IP first-hop redundancy

B.

communication between different nodes for cluster setup

C.

physical link redundancy

D.

minimal network downtime following an RP switchover

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Questions 239

What is the recommended minimum SNR for data applications on wireless networks?

Options:

A.

15

B.

20

C.

25

D.

10

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Questions 240

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure an ERSPAN session with the remote end of the session 10.10.0.1. Which commands must be added to complete the configuration?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 241

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 is able to ping the R3 fa0/1 Interface. Why do the extended pings fail?

Options:

A.

The DF bit has been set

B.

The maximum packet size accepted by the command is 147G bytes

C.

R2 and R3 do not have an OSPF adjacency

D.

R3 is missing a return route to 10.99.69.0/30

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Questions 242

What is one benefit of adopting a data modeling language?

Options:

A.

augmenting management process using vendor centric actions around models

B.

refactoring vendor and platform specific configurations with widely compatible configurations

C.

augmenting the use of management protocols like SNMP for status subscriptions

D.

deploying machine-friendly codes to manage a high number of devices

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Questions 243

Which feature Is used to propagate ARP broadcast, and link-local frames across a Cisco SD-Access fabric to address connectivity needs for silent hosts that require reception of traffic to start communicating?

Options:

A.

Native Fabric Multicast

B.

Layer 2 Flooding

C.

SOA Transit

D.

Multisite Fabric

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Questions 244

Which three resources must the hypervisor make available to the virtual machines? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

memory

B.

bandwidth

C.

IP address

D.

processor

E.

storage

F.

secure access

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Questions 245

How do EIGRP metrics compare to OSPF metrics?

Options:

A.

EIGRP metrics are based on a combination of bandwidth and packet loss, and OSPF metrics are based on interface bandwidth.

B.

EIGRP uses the Dijkstra algorithm, and OSPF uses The DUAL algorithm

C.

The EIGRP administrative distance for external routes is 170. and the OSPF administrative distance for external routes is undefined

D.

The EIGRP administrative distance for external routes is 170. and the OSPF administrative distance for external routes is 110

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Exam Code: 350-401
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (350-401 ENCOR)
Last Update: Nov 15, 2024
Questions: 983

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