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156-915.80 Check Point Certified Security Expert Update - R80.10 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What has to be taken into consideration when configuring Management HA?

Options:

A.

The Database revisions will not be synchronized between the management servers.

B.

SmartConsole must be closed prior to synchronize changes in the objects database.

C.

If you wanted to use FullConnectivity Upgrade, you must change the Implied Rules to allow FW1_cpredundant to pass before the Firewall Control Connections.

D.

For Management Server synchronization, only External Virtual Switches are supported. So, if you wanted to employ Virtual Routers instead, you have to reconsider your design.

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Questions 5

In the Check Point Firewall Kernel Module, each Kernel is associated with a key, which specifies the type of traffic applicable to the chain module. For Stateful Mode configuration, chain modules marked with ___________ will not apply.

Options:

A.

ffff

B.

1

C.

3

D.

2

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Questions 6

Connections to the Check Point R80 Web API use what protocol?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

SOAP

C.

HTTP

D.

SIC

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Questions 7

Your users are defined in a Windows 2008 R2 Active Directory server. You must add LDAP users to a Client Authentication rule. Which kind of user group do you need in the Client Authentication rule in R80?

Options:

A.

External-user group

B.

LDAPgroup

C.

A group with a generic user

D.

All Users

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Questions 8

You have configured Automatic Static NAT on aninternal host-node object. You clear the box Translate destination on client site from Global Properties > NAT. Assuming all other NAT settings in Global Properties are selected, what else must be configured so that a host on the Internet can initiate an inbound connection to this host?

Options:

A.

No extra configuration is needed.

B.

A proxy ARP entry, to ensure packets destined for the public IP address will reach the Security Gateway's external interface.

C.

The NAT IP address must be added to the external Gateway interface anti-spoofing group.

D.

A static route, to ensure packets destined for the public NAT IP address will reach the Gateway's internal interface.

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Questions 9

How do you recover communications between your Security Management Server and Security Gateway if you lock yourself out through a rule or policy mis-configuration?

Options:

A.

fw unload policy

B.

fw unloadlocal

C.

fw delete all.all@localhost

D.

fwm unloadlocal

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Questions 10

Which command would provide the most comprehensive diagnostic information to Check Point Technical Support?

Options:

A.

fw cpinfo

B.

cpinfo -o date.cpinfo.txt

C.

diag

D.

cpstat - date.cpstat.txt

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Questions 11

Where can you find the Check Point’s SNMP MIB file?

Options:

A.

$CPDIR/lib/snmp/chkpt.mib

B.

$FWDIR/conf/snmp.mib

C.

It is obtained only by request from the TAC.

D.

There is no specific MIB file for Check Point products.

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Questions 12

Complete this statement from the options provided. Using Captive Portal, unidentified users may be either; blocked, allowed to enter required credentials, or required to download the _____________.

Options:

A.

Identity Awareness Agent

B.

Full Endpoint Client

C.

ICA Certificate

D.

SecureClient

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Questions 13

You are running a R80 Security Gateway on GAiA. In case of a hardware failure, you have a server with the exact same hardware and firewall version installed. What back up method could be used to quickly put the secondary firewall into production?

Options:

A.

manual backup

B.

upgrade_export

C.

backup

D.

snapshot

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Questions 14

Captive Portal is a __________ that allows the gateway to request login information from the user.

Options:

A.

Pre-configured and customizable web-based tool

B.

Transparent network inspection tool

C.

LDAP serveradd-on

D.

Separately licensed feature

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Questions 15

You find that Users are not prompted for authentication when they access their Web servers, even though you havecreated an HTTP rule via User Authentication. Choose the BEST reason why.

Options:

A.

You checked the cache password on desktop option in Global Properties.

B.

Another rule that accepts HTTP without authentication exists in the Rule Base.

C.

You have forgotten to place the User Authentication Rule before the Stealth Rule.

D.

Users must use the SecuRemote Client, to use the User Authentication Rule.

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Questions 16

You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. A Check Point firewall isinstalled and in use on a platform using GAiA. You have trouble configuring the speed and duplex settings of your Ethernet interfaces. Which of the following commands can be used in CLISH to configure the speed and duplex settings of an Ethernet interfaceand will survive a reboot? Give the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

ethtool

B.

set interface

C.

mii_tool

D.

ifconfig -a

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Questions 17

When restoring R80 using the command upgrade_import, which of the following items are NOT restored?

Options:

A.

SIC Certificates

B.

Licenses

C.

Route tables

D.

Global properties

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Questions 18

ALL of the following options are provided by the GAiAsysconfig utility, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Export setup

B.

DHCP Server configuration

C.

Time & Date

D.

GUI Clients

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Questions 19

Which of the following commands can provide the most complete restoration of a R80 configuration?

Options:

A.

upgrade_import

B.

cpinfo -recover

C.

cpconfig

D.

fwmdbimport -p

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Questions 20

John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to designated IP addresses to minimizemalware infection and unauthorized access risks. Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned a static IP address 10.0.0.19.

John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but that limits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his laptop with a static IP (10.0.0.19). He wants tomove around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server.

To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:

1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources installs the policy.

2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location.

What should John do when he cannot access the web server from a different personal computer?

Options:

A.

John should lock and unlock his computer

B.

Investigate this as a network connectivity issue

C.

The access should be changed to authenticate the user instead of the PC

D.

John should install the Identity Awareness Agent

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Questions 21

You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an internal Web Serverthat has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address. You have an unused valid IP address on the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router. You control the router that sits between the firewall external interface and the Internet.

What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot be used on your Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.

B.

Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall's external address.

C.

Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.

D.

Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.

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Questions 22

Which Check Point address translation method is necessary if you want to connect from a host on the Internet via HTTP to a server with a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address on your DMZ?

Options:

A.

Dynamic Source Address Translation

B.

Hide Address Translation

C.

Port Address Translation

D.

Static Destination Address Translation

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Questions 23

You intend to upgrade a Check Point Gateway from R71 to R80. Prior to upgrading, you want to back up the Gateway should there be any problems with the upgrade. Which of the following allows for the Gateway configuration to be completely backed up into a manageable size in the least amount of time?

Options:

A.

database revision

B.

snapshot

C.

upgrade_export

D.

backup

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Questions 24

Looking at the SYN packets in the Wireshark output, select the statement that is true about NAT.

Options:

A.

This is an example of Hide NAT.

B.

There is not enough information provided in the Wireshark capture to determine the NAT settings.

C.

This is an exampleof Static NAT and Translate destination on client side unchecked in Global Properties.

D.

This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side checked in Global Properties.

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Questions 25

Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The Firewall protecting Human Resources’ servers should have its own Policy Package. These rules must be installed on this machine and not onthe Internet Firewall. How can this be accomplished?

Options:

A.

A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a Firewall are defined by the selection in the Rule Base row Install On.

B.

When selecting the correct Firewall in each line of the Rule Base row Install On, only this Firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after selecting Policy > Install on Target.

C.

In the menu of SmartDashboard, go to Policy > Policy Installation Targets and select the correct firewall via Specific Targets.

D.

A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point Firewall object. It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install on Target.

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Questions 26

Before upgrading SecurePlatform to GAiA, you should create a backup. To save time, many administrators use the command backup. This creates a backupof the Check Point configuration as well as the system configuration.

An administrator has installed the latest HFA on the system for fixing traffic problem after creating a backup file. There is a mistake in the very complex static routing configuration.The Check Point configuration has not been changed. Can the administrator use a restore to fix the errors in static routing?

Options:

A.

The restore is not possible because the backup file does not have the same build number (version).

B.

The restore is done by selecting Snapshot Management from the boot menu of GAiA.

C.

The restore can be done easily by the command restore and copying netconf.C from the production environment.

D.

A backup cannot be restored, because the binary files are missing.

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Questions 27

Security Gateway R80 supports UserAuthentication for which of the following services? Select the response below that contains the MOST correct list of supported services.

Options:

A.

SMTP, FTP, TELNET

B.

SMTP, FTP, HTTP, TELNET

C.

FTP, HTTP, TELNET

D.

FTP, TELNET

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Questions 28

The technical-support department has a requirement to access an intranet server. When configuring a User Authentication rule to achieve this, whichof the following should you remember?

Options:

A.

You can only use the rule for Telnet, FTP, SMTP, and rlogin services.

B.

The Security Gateway first checks if there is any rule that does not require authentication for this type of connection before invoking the Authentication Security Server.

C.

Once a user is first authenticated, the user will not be prompted for authentication again until logging out.

D.

You can limit the authentication attempts in the User Properties’ Authentication tab.

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Questions 29

Which of the following options is available with the GAiA cpconfig utility on a Management Server?

Options:

A.

Export setup

B.

DHCP Server configuration

C.

GUI Clients

D.

Time & Date

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Questions 30

You are the Security Administrator for ABC-Corp. A Check Point Firewall is installed and in use on GAiA. You are concerned that the system might not be retaining your entries for the interfaces and routing configuration. You would like to verify your entries in the corresponding file(s) on GAiA. Where can you view them? Give the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

/etc/sysconfig/netconf.C

B.

/etc/conf/route.C

C.

/etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-ethx

D.

/etc/sysconfig/network

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Questions 31

The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in Global Properties. He managed to lock all administrators out of their accounts. How should you unlock these accounts?

Options:

A.

Delete the file admin.lock in the Security Management Server directory $FWDIR/tmp/.

B.

Reinstall the Security Management Server and restore using upgrade_import.

C.

Type fwm lock_admin -ua from the Security Management Server command line.

D.

Login to SmartDashboard as the special cpconfig_admin user account; right-click on each administrator object and select unlock.

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Questions 32

What mechanism does a gateway configured with Identity Awareness and LDAP initially use to communicate with aWindows 2003 or 2008 server?

Options:

A.

WMI

B.

CIFS

C.

RCP

D.

LDAP

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Questions 33

You have selected the event Port Scanfrom Internal Network in SmartEvent, to detect an event when 30 port scans have occurred within 60 seconds. You also want to detect two port scans from a host within 10 seconds of each other. How would you accomplish this?

Options:

A.

Define the two port-scan detections as an exception.

B.

You cannot set SmartEvent to detect two port scans from a host within 10 seconds of each other.

C.

Select the two port-scan detections as a sub-event.

D.

Select the two port-scan detections as a new event.

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Questions 34

How many pre-defined exclusions are included by default in SmartEvent R80 as part of the product installation?

Options:

A.

5

B.

0

C.

10

D.

3

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Questions 35

Fill in the blank. To remove site-to-site IKE and IPSEC keys you would enter command ____ ___ and select the option to delete all IKE and IPSec SA’s.

Options:

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Questions 36

What command syntax would you use to turn on PDP logging in a distributed environment?

Options:

A.

pdp track=1

B.

pdp tracker on

C.

pdp logging on

D.

pdp log=1

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Questions 37

If you need strong protection for the encryption of user data, what option would be the BEST choice?

Options:

A.

Use Diffie-Hellman for key construction and pre-shared keys for Quick Mode. Choose SHA in QuickMode and encrypt with AES. Use AH protocol. Switch to Aggressive Mode.

B.

When you need strong encryption, IPsec is not the best choice. SSL VPN’s are a better choice.

C.

Use certificates for Phase 1, SHA for all hashes, AES for all encryption and PFS, anduse ESP protocol.

D.

Disable Diffie-Hellman by using stronger certificate based key-derivation. Use AES-256 bit on all encrypted channels and add PFS to QuickMode. Use double encryption by implementing AH and ESP as protocols.

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Questions 38

You want to establish a VPN, using certificates. Your VPN will exchange certificates with an externalpartner. Which of the following activities should you do first?

Options:

A.

Exchange exported CA keys and use them to create a new server object to represent your partner’s Certificate Authority (CA).

B.

Create a new logical-server object to represent your partner’s CA.

C.

Manually import your partner’s Access Control List.

D.

Manually import your partner’s Certificate Revocation List.

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Questions 39

How could you compare the Fingerprint shown to the Fingerprint on the server? Run cpconfig and select:

Exhibit:

Options:

A.

the Certificate Authority option and view the fingerprint.

B.

the GUI Clients option and view the fingerprint.

C.

the Certificate's Fingerprint option and view the fingerprint.

D.

the Server Fingerprint option and view the fingerprint.

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Questions 40

Paul has just joined the MegaCorp security administration team. Natalie, the administrator, creates a newadministrator account for Paul in SmartDashboard and installs the policy. When Paul tries to login it fails. How can Natalie verify whether Paul’s IP address is predefined on the security management server?

Options:

A.

Login to Smart Dashboard, access Properties of the SMS, and verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed.

B.

Type cpconfig on the Management Server and select the option “GUI client List” to see if Paul’s IP address is listed.

C.

Login in to Smart Dashboard, access Global Properties, and select Security Management, to verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed.

D.

Access the WEBUI on the Security Gateway, and verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed as a GUI client.

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Questions 41

Type the full fw command and syntax that allows you to disable only sync on a cluster firewall member.

Options:

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Questions 42

Fill in the blanks. To view the number of concurrent connections going through your firewall, you would use the command and syntax __ ___ __ __________ __ .

Options:

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Questions 43

To provide full connectivity upgrade status, use command

Options:

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Questions 44

To bind a NIC to a single processor when using CoreXL on GAiA, you would use the command

Options:

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Questions 45

How could you compare the Fingerprint shown to the Fingerprint on the server?

Exhibit:

Options:

A.

Run cpconfig, select the Certificate's Fingerprint option and view the fingerprint

B.

Runcpconfig, select the GUI Clients option and view the fingerprint

C.

Run cpconfig, select the Certificate Authority option and view the fingerprint

D.

Run sysconfig, select the Server Fingerprint option and view the fingerprint

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Questions 46

MultiCorp is located in Atlanta. It has a branch office in Europe, Asia, and Africa. Each location has its own AD controller for local user login. How many ADqueries have to be configured?

Options:

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Questions 47

When configuring numbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs) in a clustered environment, what issues need to be considered?

1) Each member must have a unique source IP address.

2) Every interface on each member requires a unique IP address.

3) All VTI's going to the same remote peer musthave the same name.

4) Cluster IP addresses are required.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 4

B.

2 and 3

C.

1, 2, 3 and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

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Questions 48

When migrating the SmartEvent data base from one server to another, the last step is to save the files on the new server. Which of thefollowing commands should you run to save the SmartEvent data base files on the new server?

Options:

A.

cp

B.

restore

C.

migrate import

D.

eva_db_restore

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Questions 49

Which of the following items should be configured for the Security Management Server to authenticate via LDAP?

Options:

A.

Check Point Password

B.

Active DirectoryServer object

C.

Windows logon password

D.

WMI object

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Questions 50

To qualify as an Identity Awareness enabled rule, which column MAY include an Access Role?

Options:

A.

Source

B.

Track

C.

User

D.

Action

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Questions 51

What is the purpose of the pre-defined exclusions included with SmartEvent R80?

Options:

A.

To allow SmartEvent R80 to function properly with all other R71 devices.

B.

To avoid incorrect event generation by the default IPS event definition; a scenario that may occur in deployments that include Security Gateways of versions prior to R71.

C.

As a base for starting and building exclusions.

D.

To give samples of how to write your own exclusion.

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Questions 52

Fill in the blanks. To view thenumber of concurrent connections going through core 0 on the firewall, you would use the command and syntax __ __ _ ___ __ ___________ __ .

Options:

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Questions 53

Type the command and syntax that you would use to view thevirtual cluster interfaces of a ClusterXL environment.

Options:

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Questions 54

Your company has the requirement that SmartEvent reports should show a detailed and accurate view of network activity but also performance should beguaranteed. Which actions should be taken to achieve that?

1) Use same hard drive for database directory, log files, and temporary directory.

2) Use Consolidation Rules.

3) Limit logging to blocked traffic only.

4) Use Multiple Database Tables.

Options:

A.

2, 4

B.

1, 3, 4

C.

1, 2, 4

D.

1, 2

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Questions 55

Which is a suitable command to check whether Drop Templates are activated or not?

Options:

A.

fw ctl get int activate _drop_ templates

B.

fwaccel stat

C.

fwaccel stats

D.

fwctl templates –d

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Questions 56

Which one ofthe following processes below would not start if there was a licensing issue.

Options:

A.

CPD

B.

CPCA

C.

FWM

D.

CPWD

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Questions 57

True or False: SecureXL improves non-ecnrypted firewall traffic throughput and encrypted VPN traffic

throughput.

Options:

A.

True, because SecureXL does improve all traffic

B.

False, because SecureXL does not improve this traffic but CoreXL does

C.

True, because SecureXL does improve this traffic

D.

False, because encrypted traffic cannot be inspected

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Questions 58

What scenario indicates that SecureXL is enabled?

Options:

A.

Dynamic objects are available in the Object Explorer

B.

SecureXL can be disabled in cpconfig

C.

fwaccel commands can be used in clish

D.

Only one packet in a stream is seen in a fw monitor packet capture

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Questions 59

Which statement is true regarding redundancy?

Options:

A.

System Administrator know when their cluster has failed over and can also see why it failed over by using the cphaprob f itcommand.

B.

ClusterXL offers three different Load Sharing solutions: Unicast, Broadcast, and Multicast.

C.

Machines in a Cluster XL High Availability configuration must be synchronized.

D.

Both Cluster XL and VRRP are fully supported by Gaia and availableto all Check Point appliances, open servers, and virtualized environments.

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Questions 60

Which command can you use to enable or disable multi-queue per interface?

Options:

A.

cpmq set

B.

Cpmqueue set

C.

Cpmq config

D.

Set cpmq enable

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Questions 61

Choose the correct syntax to add a new host named “emailserver1” with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA Management CLI?

Options:

A.

mgmt._cli add host name “myHost12 ip” address 10.50.23.90

B.

mgmt._cli add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

C.

mgmt._cli add host “emailserver1” address 10.50.23.90

D.

mgmt._cli add host name “emailserver1” ip-address 10.50.23.90

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Questions 62

Joey and Vanessa arefirewall administrators in their company. Joey wants to run Management API server on his Security Management server. He is logging in to a Smart Console and goes to the Manage & Settings > Blade. In Management API section, he proceeds to Advanced Settings.He likes to set up the Management API server to automatic run at startup. He is surprised, because this functionality is already selected by default.

What is the reason, that functionality is already enabled?

Options:

A.

Joey is an administrator of Distributed Security Management with at least 4GB of RAM.

B.

Vanessa is an administrator of Standalone Security Management with at least 6GB of RAM.

C.

Vanessa already enabled this feature on the Security server before him, but didn’t tell Joey.

D.

Joey is an administrator of StandAlone Security Management with Gateway with 6GB of RAM.

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Questions 63

What is mandatory for ClusterXL to work properly?

Options:

A.

The number of cores must be the same on every participating cluster node

B.

The Magic MAC number mustbe unique per cluster node.

C.

The Sync Interface must not have an IP address configured

D.

If you have “Non-monitored Private” interfaces, the number of those interfaces must be the same on all cluster members

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Questions 64

Both ClusterXL and VRRP are fully supported by Gaia R80.10 and available to all Check Point appliances. Which of the following command is NOT related to redundancy and functions?

Options:

A.

cphaprob stat

B.

cphaprob –a if

C.

cphaprob –l list

D.

cphaprob all show stat

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Questions 65

What is correct statement about Security Gateway and Security Management Server failover in Check Point R80.X in terms of Check Point Redundancy driven solutions?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway failover is an automatic procedure but Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.

B.

Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure

C.

Security Gateway failover is a manual procedure but Security Management Server failoveris an automatic procedure.

D.

Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

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Questions 66

Fred is troubleshooting a NAT issue and wants to check to see if the inboundconnection from his internal network is being translated across the interface in the firewall correctly. He decides to use the fw monitor to capture the traffic from the source 192.168.3.5 or the destination of 10.1.1.25 on his Security Gateway, Green thathas an IP of 192.168.4.5. What command captures this traffic in a file that he can download and review with WireShark?

Options:

A.

Expert@Green# fwmonitor –e “accept src=192.168.3.5 and dst=10.1.1.25;” –o monitor.out

B.

Expert@Green# fw monitor –e “accept src=192.168.3.5 or dst=10.1.1.25;” –o monitor.out

C.

Expert@Green# fwmonitor –e “accept src=192.168.3.5 or dst=10.1.1.25;” –o monitor.out

D.

Expert@Green# fw monitor –e “accept src=192.168.4.5 or dst=10.1.1.25;” –o monitor.out

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Questions 67

Which is not a blade option when configuring SmartEvent?

Options:

A.

Correlation Unit

B.

SmartEvent Unit

C.

SmartEvent Server

D.

Log Server

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Questions 68

Which components allow you to reset a VPN tunnel?

Options:

A.

vpn tu command or SmartView monitor

B.

delete vpn ike sa or vpn she11command

C.

vpn tunnelutil or delete vpn ike sa command

D.

SmartView monitor only

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Questions 69

As an administrator, you may berequired to add the company logo to reports. To do this, you would save the logo as a PNG file with the name ‘cover-company-logo.png’ and then copy that image file to which directory on the SmartEvent server?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/smartevent/conf

B.

$RTDIR/smartevent/conf

C.

$RTDIR/smartview/conf

D.

$FWDIR/smartview/conf

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Questions 70

What are the main stages of a policy installation?

Options:

A.

Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Commit

B.

Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Installation

C.

Verification, Commit, Installation

D.

Verification, Compilation & Transfer, Installation

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Questions 71

In order to get info about assignment (FW, SND) of all CPUs in your SGW, what is themost accurate CLI command?

Options:

A.

fw ctl sdstat

B.

fw ctl affinity -l -a -r -v

C.

fw ctl multik stat

D.

cpinfo

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Questions 72

What command would show the API server status?

Options:

A.

cpmstatus

B.

api restart

C.

api status

D.

show api status

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Questions 73

In what way are SSL VPN and IPSec VPN different?

Options:

A.

SSL VPN is using HTTPS in addition to IKE, whereas IPSec VPN is clientless

B.

SSL VPN adds and extra VPN header to the packet, IPsec VPN does not

C.

IPsec VPN does not support two factor authentication, SSL VPN does support this

D.

IPsec VPN uses an additional virtual adapter; SSL VPN uses the client network adapter only

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Questions 74

SandBlast appliances can be deployed in the following modes:

Options:

A.

using a SPAN port to receive a copy of the traffic only

B.

detect only

C.

inline/prevent or detect

D.

as a Mail Transfer Agent and aspart of the we traffic flow only

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Questions 75

SmartEvent has several components that function together to track security threats. What is the function of the Correlation Unit as a component of this architecture?

Options:

A.

Analyzes this log entry as it arrives at the log server according to the Event Policy. When a threat pattern is identified, an event is forwarded to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

Correlates all the identified threats with the consolidation policy.

C.

Collectssyslog data from third party devices and saves them to the database.

D.

Connects with the SmartEvent Client when generating threat reports.

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Exam Code: 156-915.80
Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Expert Update - R80.10
Last Update: Nov 23, 2024
Questions: 502