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156-315.80 Check Point Certified Security Expert (CCSE) R80 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which is the correct order of a log flow processed by SmartEvent components?

Options:

A.

Firewall > Correlation Unit > Log Server > SmartEvent Server Database > SmartEvent Client

B.

Firewall > SmartEvent Server Database > Correlation Unit > Log Server > SmartEvent Client

C.

Firewall > Log Server > SmartEvent Server Database > Correlation Unit > SmartEvent Client

D.

Firewall > Log Server > Correlation Unit > SmartEvent Server Database > SmartEvent Client

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Questions 5

Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs

B.

Capsule Cloud

C.

Capsule Enterprise

D.

Capsule Workspace

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Questions 6

When attempting to start a VPN tunnel, in the logs the error “no proposal chosen” is seen numerous times. No other VPN-related entries are present.

Which phase of the VPN negotiations has failed?

Options:

A.

IKE Phase 1

B.

IPSEC Phase 2

C.

IPSEC Phase 1

D.

IKE Phase 2

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Questions 7

Fill in the blank. Once a certificate is revoked from the Security Gateway by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is ________ .

Options:

A.

Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.

B.

Sent to the Security Administrator.

C.

Stored on the Security Management Server.

D.

Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.

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Questions 8

What is the best method to upgrade a Security Management Server to R80.x when it is not connected to the Internet?

Options:

A.

CPUSE offline upgrade only

B.

Advanced upgrade or CPUSE offline upgrade

C.

Advanced Upgrade only

D.

SmartUpdate offline upgrade

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Questions 9

Fill in the blank: __________ information is included in “Full Log” tracking option, but is not included in “Log” tracking option?

Options:

A.

Destination port

B.

Data type

C.

File attributes

D.

Application

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Questions 10

To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command should you run on all cluster members?

Options:

A.

fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled

B.

fw ctl get int vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1

C.

cphaprob-a if

D.

fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1

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Questions 11

What information is NOT collected from a Security Gateway in a Cpinfo?

Options:

A.

Firewall logs

B.

Configuration and database files

C.

System message logs

D.

OS and network statistics

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Questions 12

There are two R77.30 Security Gateways in the Firewall Cluster. They are named FW_A and FW_B. The cluster is configured to work as HA (High availability) with default cluster configuration. FW_A is configured to have higher priority than FW_B. FW_A was active and processing the traffic in the morning. FW_B was standby. Around 1100 am, its interfaces went down and this caused a failover. FW_B became active. After an hour, FW_A’s interface issues were resolved and it became operational.

When it re-joins the cluster, will it become active automatically?

Options:

A.

No, since ‘maintain’ current active cluster member’ option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default.

B.

No, since ‘maintain’ current active cluster member’ option is enabled by default on the Global Properties.

C.

Yes, since ‘Switch to higher priority cluster member’ option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default.

D.

Yes, since ‘Switch to higher priority cluster member’ option is enabled by default on the Global Properties.

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Questions 13

Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?

Options:

A.

Gateway API

B.

Management API

C.

OPSEC SDK

D.

Threat Prevention API

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Questions 14

An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN between his corporate office and branch office. Both offices are protected by Check Point Security Gateway managed by the same Security Management Server. While configuring the VPN community to specify the pre-shared secret the administrator found that the check box to enable pre-shared secret and cannot be enabled.

Why does it not allow him to specify the pre-shared secret?

Options:

A.

IPsec VPN blade should be enabled on both Security Gateway.

B.

Pre-shared can only be used while creating a VPN between a third party vendor and Check Point Security Gateway.

C.

Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway managed by the same SMS.

D.

The Security Gateways are pre-R75.40.

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Questions 15

In what way are SSL VPN and IPSec VPN different?

Options:

A.

SSL VPN is using HTTPS in addition to IKE, whereas IPSec VPN is clientless

B.

SSL VPN adds an extra VPN header to the packet, IPSec VPN does not

C.

IPSec VPN does not support two factor authentication, SSL VPN does support this

D.

IPSec VPN uses an additional virtual adapter; SSL VPN uses the client network adapter only.

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Questions 16

In which VPN community is a satellite VPN gateway not allowed to create a VPN tunnel with another satellite VPN gateway?

Options:

A.

Pentagon

B.

Combined

C.

Meshed

D.

Star

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Questions 17

NO: 180

What command can you use to have cpinfo display all installed hotfixes?

Options:

A.

cpinfo -hf

B.

cpinfo –y all

C.

cpinfo –get hf

D.

cpinfo installed_jumbo

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Questions 18

Which statements below are CORRECT regarding Threat Prevention profiles in SmartDashboard?

Options:

A.

You can assign only one profile per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one rule Only.

B.

You can assign multiple profiles per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one rule only.

C.

You can assign multiple profiles per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one or more rules.

D.

You can assign only one profile per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one or more rules.

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Questions 19

What is the Implicit Clean-up Rule?

Options:

A.

A setting is defined in the Global Properties for all policies.

B.

A setting that is configured per Policy Layer.

C.

Another name for the Clean-up Rule.

D.

Automatically created when the Clean-up Rule is defined.

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Questions 20

SSL Network Extender (SNX) is a thin SSL VPN on-demand client that is installed on the remote user’s machine via the web browser. What are the two modes of SNX?

Options:

A.

Application and Client Service

B.

Network and Application

C.

Network and Layers

D.

Virtual Adapter and Mobile App

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Questions 21

IF the first packet of an UDP session is rejected by a rule definition from within a security policy (not including the clean up rule), what message is sent back through the kernel?

Options:

A.

Nothing

B.

TCP FIN

C.

TCP RST

D.

ICMP unreachable

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Questions 22

What command verifies that the API server is responding?

Options:

A.

api stat

B.

api status

C.

show api_status

D.

app_get_status

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Questions 23

Vanessa is firewall administrator in her company. Her company is using Check Point firewall on a central and several remote locations which are managed centrally by R77.30 Security Management Server. On central location is installed R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote locations are using Check Point UTM-1570 series appliances with R75.30 and some of them are using a UTM-1-Edge-X or Edge-W with latest available firmware. She is in process of migrating to R80.

What can cause Vanessa unnecessary problems, if she didn’t check all requirements for migration to R80?

Options:

A.

Missing an installed R77.20 Add-on on Security Management Server

B.

Unsupported firmware on UTM-1 Edge-W appliance

C.

Unsupported version on UTM-1 570 series appliance

D.

Unsupported appliances on remote locations

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Questions 24

When gathering information about a gateway using CPINFO, what information is included or excluded when using the “-x” parameter?

Options:

A.

Includes the registry

B.

Gets information about the specified Virtual System

C.

Does not resolve network addresses

D.

Output excludes connection table

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Questions 25

In ClusterXL Load Sharing Multicast Mode:

Options:

A.

only the primary member received packets sent to the cluster IP address

B.

only the secondary member receives packets sent to the cluster IP address

C.

packets sent to the cluster IP address are distributed equally between all members of the cluster

D.

every member of the cluster received all of the packets sent to the cluster IP address

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Questions 26

Fill in the blank: A new license should be generated and installed in all of the following situations EXCEPT when ________ .

Options:

A.

The license is attached to the wrong Security Gateway.

B.

The existing license expires.

C.

The license is upgraded.

D.

The IP address of the Security Management or Security Gateway has changed.

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Questions 27

In R80 spoofing is defined as a method of:

Options:

A.

Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation.

B.

Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.

C.

Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins

D.

Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address.

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Questions 28

Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

Options:

A.

Symmetric routing

B.

Failovers

C.

Asymmetric routing

D.

Anti-Spoofing

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Questions 29

What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

B.

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete.

C.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete.

D.

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

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Questions 30

What is the valid range for Virtual Router Identifier (VRID) value in a Virtual Routing Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) configuration?

Options:

A.

1-254

B.

1-255

C.

0-254

D.

0 – 255

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Questions 31

What makes Anti-Bot unique compared to other Threat Prevention mechanisms, such as URL Filtering, Anti-Virus, IPS, and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Anti-Bot is the only countermeasure against unknown malware

B.

Anti-Bot is the only protection mechanism which starts a counter-attack against known Command & Control Centers

C.

Anti-Bot is the only signature-based method of malware protection.

D.

Anti-Bot is a post-infection malware protection to prevent a host from establishing a connection to a Command & Control Center.

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Questions 32

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

Options:

A.

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SecureClient

D.

Security Gateway

E.

SmartEvent

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Questions 33

On R80.10 when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API) the default Log Server uses port:

Options:

A.

18210

B.

18184

C.

257

D.

18191

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Questions 34

Fill in the blank: The R80 feature _____ permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period.

Options:

A.

Block Port Overflow

B.

Local Interface Spoofing

C.

Suspicious Activity Monitoring

D.

Adaptive Threat Prevention

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Questions 35

Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

SmartUpdate

B.

cpconfig

C.

SmartConsole

D.

sysconfig

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Questions 36

Which command is used to set the CCP protocol to Multicast?

Options:

A.

cphaprob set_ccp multicast

B.

cphaconf set_ccp multicast

C.

cphaconf set_ccp no_broadcast

D.

cphaprob set_ccp no_broadcast

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Questions 37

Your manager asked you to check the status of SecureXL, and its enabled templates and features. What command will you use to provide such information to manager?

Options:

A.

fw accel stat

B.

fwaccel stat

C.

fw acces stats

D.

fwaccel stats

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Questions 38

What is the benefit of Manual NAT over Automatic NAT?

Options:

A.

If you create a new Security Policy, the Manual NAT rules will be transferred to this new policy.

B.

There is no benefit since Automatic NAT has in any case higher priority over Manual NAT

C.

You have the full control about the priority of the NAT rules

D.

On IPSO and GAIA Gateways, it is handled in a stateful manner

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Questions 39

What is the difference between an event and a log?

Options:

A.

Events are generated at gateway according to Event Policy

B.

A log entry becomes an event when it matches any rule defined in Event Policy

C.

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow form Trouble Ticket systems

D.

Log and Events are synonyms

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Questions 40

In SmartEvent, what are the different types of automatic reactions that the administrator can configure?

Options:

A.

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, External Script, SNMP Trap

B.

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, Block Services, SNMP Trap

C.

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, External Script, SNMP Trap

D.

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, Packet Capture, SNMP Trap

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Questions 41

Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

Options:

A.

No, only one can be connected

B.

Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

C.

Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators.

D.

Yes, but only one has the right to write.

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Questions 42

How do you enable virtual mac (VMAC) on-the-fly on a cluster member?

Options:

A.

cphaprob set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

B.

clusterXL set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

C.

fw ctl set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

D.

cphaconf set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

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Questions 43

With MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) enabled the gateways manages SMTP traffic and holds external email with potentially malicious attachments. What is required in order to enable MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) functionality in the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Threat Cloud Intelligence

B.

Threat Prevention Software Blade Package

C.

Endpoint Total Protection

D.

Traffic on port 25

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Questions 44

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The system administrator of a company is trying to find out why acceleration is not working for the traffic. The traffic is allowed according to the rule based and checked for viruses. But it is not accelerated. What is the most likely reason that the traffic is not accelerated?

Options:

A.

The connection is destined for a server within the network

B.

The connection required a Security server

C.

The packet is the second in an established TCP connection

D.

The packets are not multicast

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Questions 45

How would you deploy TE250X Check Point appliance just for email traffic and in-line mode without a Check Point Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Install appliance TE250X on SpanPort on LAN switch in MTA mode.

B.

Install appliance TE250X in standalone mode and setup MTA.

C.

You can utilize only Check Point Cloud Services for this scenario.

D.

It is not possible, always Check Point SGW is needed to forward emails to SandBlast appliance.

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Questions 46

Check Point Support in many cases asks you for a configuration summary of your Check Point system. This is also called:

Options:

A.

cpexport

B.

sysinfo

C.

cpsizeme

D.

cpinfo

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Questions 47

You have created a rule at the top of your Rule Base to permit Guest Wireless access to the Internet. However, when guest users attempt to reach the Internet, they are not seeing the splash page to accept your Terms of Service, and cannot access the Internet. How can you fix this?

Options:

A.

Right click Accept in the rule, select “More”, and then check ‘Enable Identity Captive Portal’.

B.

On the firewall object, Legacy Authentication screen, check ‘Enable Identity Captive Portal’.

C.

In the Captive Portal screen of Global Properties, check ‘Enable Identity Captive Portal’.

D.

On the Security Management Server object, check the box ‘Identity Logging’.

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Questions 48

Which feature is NOT provided by all Check Point Mobile Access solutions?

Options:

A.

Support for IPv6

B.

Granular access control

C.

Strong user authentication

D.

Secure connectivity

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Questions 49

What CLI command compiles and installs a Security Policy on the target’s Security Gateways?

Options:

A.

fwm compile

B.

fwm load

C.

fwm fetch

D.

fwm install

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Questions 50

Which command would disable a Cluster Member permanently?

Options:

A.

clusterXL_admin down

B.

cphaprob_admin down

C.

clusterXL_admin down-p

D.

set clusterXL down-p

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Questions 51

Ken wants to obtain a configuration lock from other administrator on R80 Security Management Server. He can do this via WebUI or via CLI.

Which command should he use in CLI? (Choose the correct answer.)

Options:

A.

remove database lock

B.

The database feature has one command lock database override.

C.

override database lock

D.

The database feature has two commands lock database override and unlock database. Both will work.

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Questions 52

For Management High Availability, which of the following is NOT a valid synchronization status?

Options:

A.

Collision

B.

Down

C.

Lagging

D.

Never been synchronized

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Questions 53

What SmartEvent component creates events?

Options:

A.

Consolidation Policy

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

SmartEvent Policy

D.

SmartEvent GUI

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Questions 54

Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?

Options:

A.

Identity Awareness

B.

Data Loss Prevention

C.

URL Filtering

D.

Application Control

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Questions 55

Selecting an event displays its configurable properties in the Detail pane and a description of the event in the Description pane. Which is NOT an option to adjust or configure?

Options:

A.

Severity

B.

Automatic reactions

C.

Policy

D.

Threshold

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Questions 56

You have successfully backed up Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

Options:

A.

restore_backup

B.

import backup

C.

cp_merge

D.

migrate import

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Questions 57

What can we infer about the recent changes made to the Rule Base?

Options:

A.

Rule 7 was created by the ‘admin’ administrator in the current session

B.

8 changes have been made by administrators since the last policy installation

C.

The rules 1, 5 and 6 cannot be edited by the ‘admin’ administrator

D.

Rule 1 and object webserver are locked by another administrator

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Questions 58

Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ________ .

Options:

A.

User Directory

B.

Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication

C.

Captive Portal

D.

UserCheck

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Questions 59

What happen when IPS profile is set in Detect Only Mode for troubleshooting?

Options:

A.

It will generate Geo-Protection traffic

B.

Automatically uploads debugging logs to Check Point Support Center

C.

It will not block malicious traffic

D.

Bypass licenses requirement for Geo-Protection control

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Questions 60

What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?

Options:

A.

fw ctl stat

B.

clusterXL stat

C.

clusterXL status

D.

cphaprob stat

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Questions 61

As a valid Mobile Access Method, what feature provides Capsule Connect/VPN?

Options:

A.

That is used to deploy the mobile device as a generator of one-time passwords for authenticating to an RSA Authentication Manager.

B.

Fill Layer4 VPN –SSL VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.

C.

Full Layer3 VPN –IPSec VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.

D.

You can make sure that documents are sent to the intended recipients only.

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Questions 62

Which statement is true regarding redundancy?

Options:

A.

System Administrators know when their cluster has failed over and can also see why it failed over by using the cphaprob –f if command.

B.

ClusterXL offers three different Load Sharing solutions: Unicast, Broadcast, and Multicast.

C.

Machines in a ClusterXL High Availability configuration must be synchronized.

D.

Both ClusterXL and VRRP are fully supported by Gaia and available to all Check Point appliances, open servers, and virtualized environments.

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Questions 63

After making modifications to the $CVPNDIR/conf/cvpnd.C file, how would you restart the daemon?

Options:

A.

cvpnd_restart

B.

cvpnd_restart

C.

cvpnd restart

D.

cvpnrestart

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Questions 64

Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidates management console. CPM allows the GUI client and management server to communicate via web services using ___________.

Options:

A.

TCP port 19009

B.

TCP Port 18190

C.

TCP Port 18191

D.

TCP Port 18209

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Questions 65

What API command below creates a new host with the name “New Host” and IP address of “192.168.0.10”?

Options:

A.

new host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

B.

set host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

C.

create host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

D.

add host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

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Questions 66

Sieve is a Cyber Security Engineer working for Global Bank with a large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances Steve's manager. Diana asks him to provide firewall connection table details from one of the firewalls for which he is responsible. Which of these commands may impact performance briefly and should not be used during heavy traffic times of day?

Options:

A.

fw tab -t connections -s

B.

fw tab -t connections

C.

fw tab -t connections -c

D.

fw tab -t connections -f

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Questions 67

Automation and Orchestration differ in that:

Options:

A.

Automation relates to codifying tasks, whereas orchestration relates to codifying processes.

B.

Automation involves the process of coordinating an exchange of information through web service interactions such as XML and JSON, but orchestration does not involve processes.

C.

Orchestration is concerned with executing a single task, whereas automation takes a series of tasks and puts them all together into a process workflow.

D.

Orchestration relates to codifying tasks, whereas automation relates to codifying processes.

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Questions 68

Which statement is true about ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Unicast and Multicast)

B.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Unicast Only)

C.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Multicast Only)

D.

Does not support Dynamic Routing

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Questions 69

Which packet info is ignored with Session Rate Acceleration?

Options:

A.

source port ranges

B.

source ip

C.

source port

D.

same info from Packet Acceleration is used

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Exam Code: 156-315.80
Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Expert (CCSE) R80
Last Update: Nov 23, 2024
Questions: 462